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Code d'Examen: FM0-303

Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 9)

Questions et réponses: 335 Q&As

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NO.1 In order to retain FileMaker Pro 6 database behavior, FileMaker Pro 9 may insert a Select Window
script step after which two of the following script steps as the file is converted? (Choose two.)
A. Open File
B. Go To Layout
C. Perform Script
D. Refresh Window
E. Go to Related Record
Answer: CE

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NO.2 On conversion to FileMaker Pro 9, what does the old password from a FileMaker Pro 6 file become?
A. A privilege set
B. Only the account name
C. Only the account password
D. Both an account name and account password
Answer: D

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NO.3 How many simultaneous Instant Web Publishing sessions can FileMaker Server 9 Advanced host?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 125
D. 250
Answer: B

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NO.4 For FileMaker Pro 9 files that are opened (i.e. to resolve a relationship) and where the window
remains hidden, which statement is true about a script set to perform when opening this file?
A. It will not execute.
B. It will execute as soon as the file is opened.
C. It will execute as soon as the file's first window is drawn.
D. It will execute when the file is opened only if the script has the run script with full access privileges
option enabled.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of characters that can be entered or imported into a single record's text
field in FileMaker Pro 9?
A. 64 thousand
B. 1 million
C. 1 billion
D. 2 billion
E. Limited only by disk space
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about the [Guest] account that is included by default when creating a
new FileMaker Pro 9 database? (Choose two.)
A. It is not enabled.
B. It cannot be deleted.
C. It can log in without entering a password.
D. It can log in using Instant Web Publishing without entering either a username or password.
Answer: AB

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of bytes available in a FileMaker Pro 9 text field?
A. 64 megabytes
B. 1 gigabyte
C. 2 gigabytes
D. 4 gigabytes
E. Limited only by disk space
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are the theoretical maximum limits of file size and record count in FileMaker Pro 9?
A. 8 gigabytes file size and 64 billion records
B. 64 gigabytes file size and 64 billion records
C. 2 gigabytes file size and 100 million records
D. 8 terabytes file size and 64 quadrillion records
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which software is required to share FileMaker data via ODBC to remote clients?
A. FileMaker Server 9
B. FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced
C. FileMaker Server 9 Advanced
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: C

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
A user can install FileMaker Server, the Web Publishing Engine, and all of the associated software
components on the same machine as the web server. Which two of the following groups of ports must
be open to provide database services, web services, and administrative services via the Admin Console?
(Choose two.)
A. 80, 5003, 16004
B. 80, 5003, 16000
C. 5003, 5006, 16014
D. 16001,16016, 16018
E. 16001, 16004, 16007
Answer: BD

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NO.11 Given: A one-to-many relationship from Planet to Moon. Which two formulas could be used as a
calculation field in the Planet table to return the name of the last related Moon record? (Choose two.)
A. Max (Planet::Name)
B. GetNthRecord (Planet::Name ; Count (Planet::Name))
C. GetNthRecord (Planet::Name ; Max (Planet::Name))
D. Let ( planetList = List (Planet::Name) ;
GetValue (planetList ; ValueCount (planetList)))
Answer: BD

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NO.12 When running FileMaker Server 9 Advanced in an environment that uses a firewall, which ports, at a
minimum, need to be open for FileMaker Pro 9 and FileMaker Server Admin Console to communicate
with FileMaker Server Advanced across the firewall from an end user machine?
A. Ports 5003, 5006, 50003
B. Ports 2399, 5003, 16000
C. Ports 5003, 16000, 16001
D. Ports 16000, 16001,16004
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which three of the following actions in FileMaker Pro 9 will directly trigger a FileMaker Pro 6 database
to be converted? (Choose three.)
A. Open the FileMaker Pro 6 file
B. Import / access data from the file
C. Import / access a value list from the file
D. Use the Convert File script step on the file
E. Drag and drop the file onto the FileMaker Pro 9 icon
Answer: ADE

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NO.14 Which three statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 9? (Choose three.)
A. Indexing improves the speed at which finds are performed.
B. Value lists require at least one referenced field to be indexed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. Using Unicode as the default language by which a field is indexed causes sorts on that field to be case
sensitive.
E. A value index, used in establishing relationships, stores up to 60 primary characters or digits per
return-delimited line.
Answer: ABD

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NO.15 A layout showing records from a People table has the Save record changes automatically check box
disabled in the Layout Setup dialog.
Which two actions cause FileMaker Pro 9 to display a dialog asking whether or not you want to save
changes to the current record? (Choose two.)
A. Importing records into the People table
B. Editing a field value on the layout and attempting to commit the record
C. Running a script that navigates to that layout, changes a field value, and performs a Commit
Records/Requests[No Dialog] script step
D. Running a script that navigates to that layout, changes a field value, and performs a Commit
Records/Requests[Skip data entry validation] script step
Answer: BD

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NO.16 Which of the following is a likely reason why a file converted from FileMaker Pro 6 to FileMaker Pro 9
may open slowly?
A. Use of repeating fields
B. Obsolete data sources
C. Using outdated script steps
D. Having to resolve 2-digit year dates
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which three statements are true about FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. It can import tables directly from a FileMaker Pro 8 file.
B. It can import tables directly from a FileMaker Pro 6 file.
C. It will retain internal IDs for fields when importing tables.
D. It can copy/paste script steps, scripts, fields, and tables.
E. It can import relationships and table occurrences from FileMaker Pro 9 files.
Answer: ACD

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NO.18 Which elements of a FileMaker file should be reviewed for behavior consistency after converting from
FileMaker Pro 6 to FileMaker Pro 9? (Choose four.)
A. Record locking
B. Repeating fields
C. Calculation results
D. Instant Web Publishing settings
E. Scripts set to perform When opening this file in File Options
Answer: ACDE

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NO.19 When importing table schema and data using FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced, which statement is true?
A. Privileges from the source file are retained
B. Relationships between tables are imported
C. Tables can be imported directly from FileMaker Pro 6 files
D. The user must have [Full Access] privileges to both the source and destination files
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which two of the following statements are true regarding tooltips? (Choose two.)
A. Tooltips are not visible in Preview mode.
B. Tooltip text can only incorporate indexed/stored data.
C. A tooltip can be attached to any FileMaker layout object (excluding parts).
D. Tooltips created in FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced can be edited in FileMaker Pro 9, but not added or
deleted.
Answer: AC

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NO.21 Which three functions can be performed using the Save Records As PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. Append to an existing PDF file
B. Add a password to an existing PDF file
C. Specify the magnification for the initial view
D. Enable the copying of text, images, and other content
E. Set the color scale of the document to Black & White
Answer: ACD

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NO.22 Which two of the following are true about the Data Viewer in FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced? (Choose two.)
A. It always displays the values of all global variables defined in a file.
B. It can only be accessed by users with the [Full Access] privilege set.
C. It can be used to manually change the value of a variable during debugging of a script.
D. It automatically displays the values of fields referenced by calculations used in the currently running
script.
Answer: CD

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NO.23 Which three of the following are supported operating systems for FileMaker Server 9 and Filemaker
Server 9 Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. Mac OS X Server 10.4.9
B. Mac OS X Server 10.3.9
C. Windows NT Server SP4
D. Windows XP Professional SP2
E. Windows 2003 Server Standard Edition SP2
Answer: ADE

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NO.24 When publishing FileMaker 9 files for web access, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. In order to work with a FileMaker Pro database via Instant Web Publishing, a user's web browser must
have JavaScript enabled.
B. In order to access a FileMaker Pro database using Instant Web Publishing, a user account must have
the [fmiwp] extended privilege enabled.
C. A FileMaker Pro database may be configured for access via either Custom Web Publishing with XML
OR Custom Web Publishing with PHP, but not both.
D. A FileMaker Pro database hosted via Instant Web Publishing using the FileMaker Pro or FileMaker Pro
Advanced client can only be accessed by programs and users on the same computer.
Answer: AB

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NO.25 Which two statements are correct regarding the FileMaker Pro 9 batch conversion process when
converting files from FileMaker Pro 6? (Choose two.)
A. A .fp7 extension is added to filenames that do not have file extensions.
B. Existing files are automatically suffixed with 'Old' (i.e., Customer Old.fp5).
C. A prompt is displayed asking where the converted files should be created.
D. Multiple files converted at the same time will be copied into one file with multiple tables.
E. A solution organized with files in nested folders should be converted one level at a time starting with the
files in the highest level / folder.
Answer: AC

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NO.26 Click the Exhibit button.
A user wants to build a FileMaker Pro 9 database that models a business organizational chart. One
person may manage zero or more people. One person may be managed by, at most, one other person.
The user wants to build the system in such a way that a single layout about a person can display the
name of the current person's manager as well as a portal of the people managed by the current person
(as shown in the Exhibit).
Assume that there are no lookup fields, calculation fields, or fields with auto-entered calculations defined
in any table, and there are no scripts in the file.
What is the minimum number of table occurrences that must be used to construct the layout?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following are supported in FileMaker 9 as External ODBC Data Sources?
A. Oracle 10g, Oracle 11g, SQL Server Express, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Community Edition
B. Oracle 9g, Oracle 10g, SQL Server 2000, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Community Edition
C. Oracle 10g, Oracle 11g, SQL Server 2000, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Community Edition
D. Oracle 9g, Oracle 10g, SQL Server 2000, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Enterprise Server
Answer: B

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NO.28 Script A:
Allow User Abort [Off]
Go To Layout ["Layout1"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Perform Script ["Script B"]
Go To Layout ["Layout2"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Script B:
Go To Layout ["Layout3"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Allow User Abort [On]
Go to Layout "Layout4"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
When Script A is run, on which layout(s) will both the "Continue" and "Cancel" buttons be displayed
during the Pause/Resume script steps? (Assume the Status Area is visible.)
A. Layout4
B. Layout1 and Layout3
C. Layout1 and Layout2
D. Layout2 and Layout4
E. Layout1, Layout2, and Layout3
Answer: D

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NO.29 In FileMaker Pro 9, which two statements about portals are true? (Choose two.)
A. Container fields can be placed in portals.
B. The initial row setting of a portal can be set by a script.
C. A sort order applied to a portal overrides any sort order set up for the relationship.
D. If there are multiple portals on a layout, the Go to Portal Row [First] script step will activate the portal
closest to the top, left corner of the layout.
Answer: AC

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NO.30 Which three of the following are supported operating systems for FileMaker Pro 9 and FileMaker Pro 9
Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. Mac OS X 10.4.8
B. Mac OS X 10.3.9
C. Windows Vista Ultimate
D. Windows XP Professional (Service Pack 1)
E. Windows XP Professional (Service Pack 2)
Answer: ACE

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I10-001 dernières questions d'examen certification XML Master et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: I10-001

Nom d'Examen: XML Master (XML Master Basic V2)

Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

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NO.1 Select which DTD element type declaration correctly defines the "XML Documents" structure below.
[XML Documents]
<Documents>
<Product_Name>black pen</Product_Name>
+
<Product_Name> red pencil </Product_Name>
=
<Price>100</Price>
yen.
</Documents>
A. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name|Price)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
B. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name|Price|#PCDATA)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
C. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name*|Price)>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
D. <!ELEMENT Documents (#PCDATA|Product_Name|Price)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
Answer: D

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NO.2 Select which statement is correct with regards to creating an XML document based on the DTD
element type declaration below.
[element type declaration]
<!ELEMENT computer (notebook|server)*>
<!ELEMENT notebook (mouse*)>
<!ELEMENT mouse (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT server (#PCDATA)>
A. Both the "notebook" element and the "server" element can be written as a child element of the
computer element.
B. As a child element of the "computer" element, the "server" element can be written before the
"notebook" element.
C. When writing the "notebook" element, "mouse" must be written as a child element.
D. Only one "mouse" element can be written as a child element of the "notebook" element.
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Select which of the following correctly describes the DTD attribute list declaration when the "date"
attribute and the "reception" attribute are included in the "Customer_Visit" element.
A. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit (date,reception) CDATA #IMPLIED>
B. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit (date|reception) CDATA #IMPLIED>
C. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit date && reception CDATA #IMPLIED>
D. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit date CDATA #IMPLIED reception CDATA #IMPLIED>
Answer: D

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NO.4 Select which of the following correctly describes an element type declaration that includes either the
"home" element or the "mobile" element as a child element of the "telephone_number" element.
A. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home,mobile)>
B. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home?mobile)>
C. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home)>
<!ELEMENT telephone_number (mobile)>
D. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home|mobile)>
Answer: D

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NO.5 Select which of the following correctly describes a document type declaration when designating an
external DTD file.
A. <!ENTITY productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
B. <!DOCTYPE productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
C. <!DOCTYPE root [
<!ELEMENT productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
]>
D. <!DTD productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
Answer: B

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NO.6 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Document". Select which of the following correctly describes the
results of applying "XSLT Stylesheet" to "XML Document". Assume that the input XML document and
transformation results ignore meaningless whitespace.
[XML Documents]
<product_list>
<LIST>Product_List</LIST>
<product name="pen">
<name lang="ja">Pen</name>
</product>
<product name="paper">
<name lang="ja">Paper</name>
</product>
</product_list>
[XSLT Stylesheet]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0">
<xsl:template match="/">
<LIST>
<xsl:for-each select="/product_list/product">
<xsl:value-of select="name"/>
</xsl:for-each>
</LIST>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
A. A file that does not contain any content will be output, because the XML document LIST element does
not contain a name attribute.
B. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>PenPaper</LIST>
C. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>
<name lang="jp">Pen</name>
<name lang="jp">Paper</name>
</LIST>
D. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>
<name lang="jp">Pen</name>
<name lang="jp">Paper</name>
PenPaper
</LIST>
Answer: B

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NO.7 Select which of the following is correct with respect to the attribute list declaration for setting
"notebook" as the default value in the CDATA "type" attribute included in the "computer" element.
A. <!ATTLIST type CDATA "notebook">
B. <!ATTLIST computer type CDATA notebook>
C. <!ATTLIST computer type CDATA "notebook">
D. <!ATTLIST computer type="notebook" CDATA>
Answer: C

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NO.8 Select which of the following is the default character encoding for an XML document in which the XML
declaration does not designate an encoding attribute.
A. UNICODE
B. Shift_JIS
C. UTF-8 or UTF-16
D. EUC-JP
Answer: C

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NO.9 Select which answers are correct with respect to the relationship between "x", as expressed in the
DTD element type declaration below, and its child element. Assume child elements "a" "b" "c" are all
empty elements, expressed as like <a/>.
[DTD]
<!ELEMENT x (a, (b|c)*)>
A. <x>
<a/>
<b/>
<c/>
</x>
B. <x>
<a/>
</x>
C. <x>
<a/>
<c/>
<c/>
<b/>
</x>
D. <x>
<b/>
<c/>
<a/>
</x>
Answer: ABC

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NO.10 Select which of the following is coded using XML syntax:
A. XHTML documents
B. SOAP headers
C. XSLT Stylesheets
D. DOM
Answer: ABC

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NO.11 Select which statement correctly describes the XML document below.
[XML Documents]
<!DOCTYPE ElementA [
<!ELEMENT ElementA EMPTY>
<!ATTLIST ElementA Attribute (ABC|DEF|GHI) #IMPLIED>
]>
<ElementA Attribute ="
A
B
C"/>
A. This is not a well-formed document, because the attribute value cannot have a line feed in it.
B. This is not a valid XML document, because an attribute cannot be designated for an element that is
designated as EMPTY.
C. This is not a valid XML document, because the attribute value is not a value listed in the attribute list
declaration.
D. This is a valid XML document.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Select which of the following correctly describes a namespace to which the "price" element in the XML
document below belongs.
<message xmlns="urn:sample:order"
xmlns:product="urn:sample:product">
<product:list xmlns="urn:sample:list">
<name>XML study guide</name>
<price>536</price>
</product:list>
<order>
<customerID>J058974</customerID>
<number>1</number>
</order>
</message>
A. urn:sample:order
B. urn:sample:product
C. urn:sample:list
D. Does not belong to any namespace.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Select which of the following is an absolute requirement for a well-formed XML document.
A. an XML declaration
B. a Schema definition
C. a DOCTYPE declaration
D. an element
Answer: D

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NO.14 Select which of the following correctly describes an XML Schema definition when the MarketPrice
element must be a positive integer. Assume the Schema namespace prefix is "xs".
A. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:negativeInteger"/>
B. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:positiveInteger"/>
C. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:duration"/>
D. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:hexBinary"/>
Answer: B

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NO.15 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Schema Document". Select which of the following correctly
describes a valid XML document with respect to "XML Schema Document".
[XML Schema Document]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="ContactInformation" type="ContactType" />
<xs:complexType name="ContactType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element name="Name" type="xs:string" maxOccurs="unbounded"/>
<xs:element name="eMail" type="xs:string" maxOccurs="unbounded"/>
</xs:sequence>
<xs:attribute name="Date" type="xs:date" use="optional" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
A. <ContactInformation Date="2004-07-31">
<Name>Taro Yamada</Name>
<eMail>Yamada@ABC.co.jp</eMail>
</ContactInformation>
B. <ContactInformation>
<Name/>
<eMail/>
</ContactInformation>
C. <ContactInformation Date="July 31, 2004">
<Name>Taro Yamada</Name>
<eMail>Yamada@ABC.co.jp</eMail>
</ContactInformation>
D. <ContactInformation/>
Answer: AB

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NO.16 Select which of the following correctly describes the XML namespace to which the -->(1) "product"
element in the "XML Document" below belongs.
[XML Documents]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<products xmlns:A="urn:sample:A"
xmlns:B="urn:sample:B">
<A:product>
<B:product>
<product/> -->(1)
</B:product>
</A:product>
</products>
A. urn:sample:A
B. urn:sample:B
C. urn:sample:A and urn:sample:B
D. None
Answer: D

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NO.17 Choose the statement about HTML or XML that is incorrect.
A. In HTML, the types and meanings of tags are predefined.
B. In XML, a tag can be given any name as long as the name obeys XML naming conventions and is
well-formed.
C. In XML, elements can be given any number of attributes as long as the attributes obey XML naming
conventions and are well-formed.
D. XML protocols are linguistic standards used to control views on a Web browser.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Select which of the following correctly describes (1) and (2) in the XML Schema document below when
the content of the "Flag" element must be an integer of 0 or 1.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="Flag" type="flagData"/>
<xs:simpleType name="flagData">
<xs:restriction base="xs:integer">
<(1) value="0"/>
<(2) value="1"/>
</xs:restriction>
</xs:simpleType>
</xs:schema>
A. (1) xs:minInclusive (2) xs:maxInclusive
B. (1) xs:enumeration (2) xs:enumeration
C. (1) xs:minOccurs (2) xs:maxOccurs
D. (1) xs:minExclusive (2) xs:maxExclusive
Answer: AB

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NO.19 Choose the statement about a problem with DTDs that is incorrect.
A. The way statements are made in a DTD differs from how the same statements are made in XML. As
a result, different algorithms must be made available for the XML processor to interpret XML documents,
which is inefficient.
B. Any single DTD can only be used to validate a single XML document.
C. In a DTD, it is not possible to specify any explicit numerical data type.
D. DTDs fail to comply with the rules of namespaces.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Schema Document". Which of the following is a valid XML
document with respect to "XML Schema Document".
[XML Schema Document]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="Output_file" type="outputType" />
<xs:complexType name="outputType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref="file" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="20" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="file" type="fileType" />
<xs:complexType name="fileType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref="file_Name" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="file_Name" type="xs:string" />
</xs:schema>
A. < xml version="1.0"?>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
B. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
C. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
<file_Name>map2.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
D. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
<file>
<file_Name>map2.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
Answer: ABD

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Code d'Examen: VCP-510

Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VSphere 5)

Questions et réponses: 310 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.4 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.6 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.10 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.13 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.16 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.17 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.20 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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Code d'Examen: VCP510

Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VSphere 5)

Questions et réponses: 310 Q&As

VCP510 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/VCP510.html

NO.1 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.11 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.12 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.14 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.15 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.16 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.19 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.20 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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Code d'Examen: VCP-410J

Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4 (VCP-410日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 320 Q&As

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NO.1 ESX 4.x の゗ンストールを実行するときは、 サービス? コンソール? フゔ゗ル? システ ムの
有効な場所は次のどれですか（二つ選んでください）?? 。
A. 共有 VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖスク内。
B. SAN デゖスク上の ESX ホストのみにマスクされた VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デ
ゖスク内。
C. ローカルストレー ジにある ext3 フゔ゗ルシステム内。
D. ローカルストレー ジ上の VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖ スク内。
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 管理者は物理サ ーバーに ESX 4.x を゗ンストールしています。
正常な゗ンストールをサポートするために、 次のコンポーネントのどれが変更されるま たは
交換される必要があるでしょうか。
A. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
B. SATA disk controller
C. 1GB RAM
D. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
Answer: C

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NO.3 次のストレージ· リソースのどれが ESX 4.x の゗ンストール時のみに作成されています
か（二つ選んでください） 。
A. vmkcore
B. swap
C. VMFS datastore
D. scratch
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 管理者は、 サー ビスコンソールのメモリ要件を増加させる ESX 4.x ホスト上でサポート
される追加コンポーネントを゗ンストールする予定です。
この゗ンストールを実行することについて次のどれが本当ですか（二つ選んでください） 。
A.ESX ホストのメモリには、 CLI を使用して調整する必要があり、 再起動の必要がありません。
B.vmkcore パーテゖションは、追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
C. ホストのメモリは、vSphere Client または CLI を使用して調整する必要があるでしょう。そ
して、ESX ホストは再起動する必要があります。
D. スワップパーテゖションが追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 vCenter Server 4.x を゗ンストールする場合、 ラ゗センスはどこで維持されますか （二つ
選んでください） 。
A. ESXi ホ スト上
B. ラ゗センスサーバ ー内
C. vCenter Server デー タベースで
D. vCenter Server マシ ンのラ゗センスフゔ゗ル内
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 次のタスクのど れが ESXi ホストのホーム· ページから選択することができますか （三つ
選んでください）??。
A. このホストの゗ンベントリのデータストゕを閲覧します。
B. vSphere 4 のドキュ メントを表示します
C. VMware vCenter Server をダウンロードします
D. VMware Web Access Client をダウンロード します。
E. このホストの゗ンベントリ内の仮想マシンを閲覧します。
Answer: A,B,C

VMware examen   VCP-410J   VCP-410J   VCP-410J examen

NO.7 次の機能のうち どれが vSphere Advanced Edition の一部ではな いのですか。
A. VMware High Availability
B. VMware Fault Tolerance
C. VMware DRS
D. VMware vShield Zones
Answer: C

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NO.8 管理者は、 SAN から起動する 10 台の ESX 4.x ホストのために、 VMFS および vmkcore パ
ーテゖションを提供する単一の SAN ボリュームを設定しています。
vmkcore パーテゖションが 10 台のホストを サポートするために、このボリューム上に存在
する必要がある最小サ゗ズはどのくらいですか。
A. vmkcore パーテゖシ ョンは、ローカルストレージに格納する必要があります
B. 1GB
C. 2GB
D. 500MB
Answer: B

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NO.9 ゕドバンスラ゗ センスで使用できるソケットあたりのコゕの最大数は何ですか。
A. 6
B. 12
C. 16
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.10 ESXi 4.x のデフォルト? スワップパーテゖションのサ゗ズは、次のどれですか。
A. 544MB
B. 4GB
C. 600MB
D. 1.6GB
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: VCPC510

Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vCloud)

Questions et réponses: 250 Q&As

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NO.1 On which two vSphere elements can traffic shaping be configured? (Choose two.)
A. On a vSphere Distributed Switch dvPort for inbound and/or outbound traffic
B. On a vSphere Distributed Switch for inbound and/or outbound traffic
C. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound traffic
D. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound and outbound traffic
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which three features are only available when using a vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose
three.)
A. Port Mirroring
B. PVLAN tagging
C. Egress Traffic Shaping
D. Ingress Traffic Shaping
E. 802.1q VLAN Tagging
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using
over
90% of its available resources for five minutes or longer.
Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger without running a
script? (Choose three.)
A. Power on a VM
B. Reboot Guest on VM
C. Increase Virtual Machine Memory
D. Migrate a VM
E. Increase Virtual Machine CPU Shares
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 As a System Administrator you can disable an Organization vDC. Disabling will have which of
the
following effects? (Choose two)
A. vApps in the Org vDC that are not running cannot be powered on.
B. All vApps in the Org vDC will be shutdown.
C. Users will not be able to create or start additional vApps in that Org vDC.
D. The running vApps in the Org vDC will have their storage lease reset.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which two resources must be in place prior to creating a new Provider vDC? (Choose two.)
A. vCloud External Network
B. vCenter Datastore
C. vCenter Resource Pool
D. vShield Protection Group
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 In a large organization, a user has 10 VMs deployed in vCloud Director, backed by a
Pay-As-You-
Go allocation model. The user needs to determine the charges being incurred for resource usage.
Which report type does the user need?
A. Showback Report
B. Usage Report
C. Cost Comparison Report
D. Cost Report
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two components are required for a vCloud infrastructure installation? (Choose two.)
A. AMQP Broker
B. vCloud Connector
C. vShield Manager
D. Oracle/MS SQL database
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 An administrator attempts to delete the network named Internet but receives an error.
What is a possible reason for the error?
A. The network named Internet is backed by a port group on a vSphere Standard Switch.
B. The vShield Edge appliance on the external network is powered off.
C. The administrator needs to be an Organization Administrator.
D. The network is still in use by an Organization.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: TB0-111

Nom d'Examen: Tibco (TIBCO Rendezvous 8 Exam)

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two situations can trigger the presentation of a SCHEDULER.OVERFLOW advisory? (Choose
two.)
A. Scheduler has set a task backlog limit.
B. Scheduler has not set a task backlog limit.
C. Scheduler is accepting new tasks, but discarding old ones on a FIFO basis.
D. The Scheduler backlog limit has been reached and new tasks are being discarded.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 With TIBCO Rendezvous messaging, which networking protocol does the client application use to
connect to the Rendezvous daemon (RVD)?
A. SSL
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three activities can be configured through the Rendezvous routing daemon (RVRD) HTTP
interface to be routinely output to the RVRD log file? (Choose three.)
A. Subject Data: to log all messages that this routing daemon forwards to its neighbors or receives from
its neighbors
B. Connections: to log connection activity whenever this routing daemon establishes or closes a
connection to a neighbor
C. Client: to log RVRD local client connection activity whenever a client application establishes or closes a
connection to the routing daemon
D. Subject interest: to log all subscription requests (notification of listening) that this routing daemon
sends to its neighbors or receives from its neighbors
E. Remote: to log RVRD remote client connection activity whenever a remote client application
establishes or closes a connection to the routing daemon
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Which advisory message does a Rendezvous fault-tolerant member present when other group
members use parameters that do not match its corresponding parameters?
A. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.PARAM_MISMATCH.group
B. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.PARAM_COLLISION.group
C. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.MEMBER_UNAVAILABLE.group
D. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.MEMBER_PARAM_MISMATCH.group
Answer: A

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NO.5 In TIBCO Rendezvous, a control channel is used for communication between _____.
A. Rendezvous daemons and client processes
B. Rendezvous daemons and browser interface
C. Rendezvous managed daemons and Rendezvous non-managed daemons
D. Rendezvous Daemon Manager (RVDM) and Rendezvous managed daemons
Answer: D

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NO.6 Queue dispatch calls remove the event at the head of a queue, and run its callback function. What is
the correct behavior for the three types of dispatch calls in situations where the queue is empty? (Choose
three.)
A. Ordinary dispatch blocks indefinitely, until the queue contains an event.
B. Polling dispatch does not block. If the queue is empty, it returns immediately.
C. Timed dispatch does not block for an event, but keeps on polling periodically.
D. Ordinary dispatch blocks for the timeout value, until the queue contains an event.
E. Polling dispatch blocks waiting for an event. If the queue is empty, it returns immediately.
F. Timed dispatch blocks waiting for an event, but returns without dispatching anything if a waiting time
limit is exceeded.
Answer: A,B,F

Tibco examen   certification TB0-111   certification TB0-111

NO.7 Which statement is correct about the _RV.INFO.RVCM.DELIVERY.CONFIRM.subject advisory?
A. A listener sends this advisory to confirm receipt of a certified message.
B. The sender presents this advisory after deleting the message from its ledger.
C. A sender presents this advisory whenever a registered listener confirms receipt of a certified message.
D. A sender presents this advisory when all registered listeners have either confirmed delivery of a
certified message, or canceled interest in receiving it.
Answer: B

Tibco   TB0-111   TB0-111

NO.8 Company A will deploy their Rendezvous applications to their production environment. They need to
run five RVDs, two RVRDs, one RVA, and one RVTRACE utility on one particular host. How many ticket
files (tibrv.tkt) are needed on the host?
A. one
B. seven
C. eight
D. nine
E. four
Answer: A

Tibco   TB0-111   TB0-111   TB0-111 examen

NO.9 Which statement is correct about Rendezvous fault-tolerant groups (RVFTs)?
A. RVFT is an election protocol that tells an application when it is active or inactive.
B. RVFT can only be utilized for message producers, not for message consumers.
C. For reliable consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically disables
subscriptions if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.
D. For certified consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically
confirms messages if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.
E. For certified consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically cancels the
certified agreement if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.
Answer: A

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NO.10 tibrvlistenis started with the following settings: -network ";224.2.2.2;224.6.6.6" "mytest" tibrvsend is
started with the following settings: -network ";224.6.6.6;224.2.2.2" "mytest". "message #1" What is the
expected result?
A. The listener receives "message #1" only when run on a different host than the sender.
B. The listener does not receive "message #1" when run on a different host than the sender.
C. The listener will receive the message only if both the listener and sender run on the same host.
D. The listener will receive the message only if both the listener and sender connect remotely to the same
daemon.
Answer: A

Tibco   TB0-111   certification TB0-111   TB0-111

NO.11 Which two statement are correct about certified delivery confirmation? (Choose two.)
A. Explicit confirmation of message delivery by the listening program is the default behavior.
B. When confirmation reaches the certified sender, the transport presents a DELIVERY.CONFIRM
advisory.
C. Automatic confirmation of message delivery upon return from the callback function is the default
behavior.
D. When confirmation reaches the certified listener, the transport presents a
DELIVERY.CONFIRM advisory.
E. When confirmation reaches the certified sender, the transport presents a
DELIVERY.COMPLETE advisory.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 For Rendezvous secure daemon (RVSD), subject access can be restricted to specific users. Where on
the RVSD browser interface is this feature configured?
A. on the User's page
B. on the Subject Access page
C. on the Limiting Access page
D. on the Authorize Subjects page
Answer: C

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NO.13 Where is the Rendezvous license ticket file located?
A. It can be in any directory in theclasspath.
B. It can be in any directory in the execution path.
C. It must be in the Rendezvous Home/lib directory.
D. It must be in the Rendezvous Home/bin directory.
Answer: A

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NO.14 A publisher application uses a transport with UDP port number 8600 and multicast group 239.1.1.1.
Which two sets of transport parameters enable a subscriber application to receive messages from the
publisher? (Choose two.)
A. Service 6800, Network ";239.1.1.0;239.1.1.1"
B. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.0;239.1.1.1"
C. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.1,239.1.1.0"
D. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.0,239.1.1.1;239.1.1.1"
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 Which two statements are correct about fault-tolerant groups? (Choose two.)
A. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight.
B. Fault-tolerant groups implement a K of N active strategy (K member of a group is active while N-K
members are passive).
C. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight, which must be
a unique value within the fault-tolerant group.
D. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight. Members with
equal weight are ranked by the time they joined the fault-tolerant group.
E. The members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight. Members
with equal weight are ranked by non-deterministic means opaque to programs.
Answer: B,E

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NO.16 The following is the declaration of secure daemon in Rendezvous C API: tibrv_status
tibrvSecureDaemon_SetUserCertWithKey( const char* userCertWithKey, const char* password);
Which two statements are correct about this function? (Choose two.)
A. The password parameter is used to decrypt the private key.
B. The password parameter is used for the password for this user.
C. TheuserCertWithKey parameter is used to register user certificate with a private key. The text of this
certificate must be in PEM encoding.
D. TheuserCertWithKey parameter is used to register user certificate with a private key. The text of this
certificate may be in PEM or PK12 encoding.
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 When programming a TIBCO Rendezvous fault-tolerant application, it is a documented best practice to
associate fault-tolerant member events with _____.
A. a low-priority queue
B. a high-priority queue
C. a system event queue
D. the default event queue
Answer: B

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NO.18 You plan to test a network to ensure that it meets the following requirements: 100,000 point-topoint
messages to be published by a single source in batch mode with ten messages per batch with an interval
gap of 10 milliseconds. What is the correct rvperfm command to start a test run?
A. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -inbox -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch 10
B. rvperfm -service 7500 -daemon 7500 -inbox -messages 100000 -interval 0.01 -batch 10
C. rvperfm -service 7500 -daemon 7500 -subject PTP -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch 10
D. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -subject _INBOX -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch
E. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -subject _PTP -messages 100000 -interval 0.01 -batch 10
Answer: B

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
Which menu option shown in the exhibit is used for setting the default service and network for
Rendezvous secure daemons (RVSDs)?
A. Users
B. Services
C. XML Configuration
D. Daemon Parameters
E. Networks and Services
Answer: D

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NO.20 Your back-end processing supports multi-threading and you plan to leverage this capability in the
context of a Rendezvous distributed queue (RVCMQ) subscriber by running five concurrent threads.
Which statement is correct?
A. RVCMQ scales by multiple program instances (horizontally), not by multi-threading (vertically).
B. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as specified by the scheduler
configuration (the scheduler tasks parameter must be set to 5 or greater).
C. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as specified by the worker tasks
parameter (the worker tasks parameter of each queue member must be equal to or greater than 5).
D. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as it dispatches (nothing needs to be
done from a RVCMQ standpoint as it is a matter of the multi-threaded message dispatching).
Answer: C

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