2013年9月30日星期一

Dernières EXIN EX0-104 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: EX0-104
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (TMap Next Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test
specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
Answer: B

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NO.3 See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional
and non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
Answer: C

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NO.4 In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B

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NO.5 Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: SCNS
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense)
Questions et réponses: 232 Q&As

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NO.1 When performing wireless network traffic analysis, what is the type and subtype for an 802.11
authentication packet?
A. Type AA Subtype AAAA
B. Type 00 Subtype 1011
C. Type 0A Subtype 0A0A
D. Type 11 Subtype 0000
E. Type A0 Subtype A1A0
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.3 As you increase the layers of security in your organization, you must watch the network
behaviorclosely.
How can a firewall have a negative impact on the performance of your network?
A. It can authorize sensitive information from the wrong host
B. It can block needed traffic
C. It can decrypt secure communications that were supposed to get past the firewall encrypted
D. It can restrict bandwidth based on QoS
E. It can filter packets that contain virus signatures
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have been given the task of building the new wireless networks for your office, and you need to
verify that your equipment will not interfere with other wireless equipment frequencies. What wireless
standard allows for up to 11 Mbps transmission rates and operates in the 2.4GHz range?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11e
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11i
E. 802.11g
Answer: A

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NO.5 The CEO of your company has just issued a statement that the network must be more secure right
away. You have discussed several options with the Chief Security Officer and the Chief Technology
Officer. The results of your discussion are to implement IPSec. What are the two prime functions of IPSec
that you can let the CEO know will be addressed with the implementation?
A. Ensure data corruptibility
B. Ensure data integrity
C. Ensure data availability
D. Ensure data security
E. Ensure data deliverability
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are
examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined
together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

EXIN   SCNS   SCNS

NO.7 At a policy meeting you have been given the task of creating the firewall policy. What are the two basic
positions you can take when creating the policy?
A. To deny all traffic and permit only that which is required.
B. To permit only IP traffic and filter TCP traffic
C. To permit only TCP traffic and filter IP traffic
D. To permit all traffic and deny that which is required.
E. To include your internal IP address as blocked from incoming to prevent spoofing.
Answer: A,D

EXIN   certification SCNS   SCNS   SCNS

NO.8 You are considering your options for a new firewall deployment. At which three layers of the OSI model
does a stateful packet filtering firewall operate?
A. Presentation
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Application
E. Transport
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.9 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic.?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are planning on implementing a token-based authentication system in your network. The network
currently is spread out over four floors of your building. There are plans to add three branch offices.
During your research you are analyzing the different types of systems. Which of the following are the two
common systems token-based authentication uses?
A. Challenge/Response
B. Random-code
C. Time-based
D. Challenge/Handshake
E. Password-Synch
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 You are configuring a new IDS, running Snort, in your network. To better configure Snort, you are
studying the configuration file. Which four of the following are the primary parts of the Snort configuration
file?
A. Postprocessors
B. Variables
C. Preprocessors
D. Output Plug-ins
E. Rulesets
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.12 You have configured Snort to run on your SuSe Linux machine, and you are currently making the
configuration changes to your MySQL database. What is the result of running the following command at
the mysql prompt?
source /usr/share/doc/packages/snort/schemas/create_mysql;
A. This command tells MySQL to connect to the /usr directory when source files are required for Snort
rules.
B. This command tells MySQL that the source files for Snort are located in the /usr directory.
C. This command tells MySQL where to place the Snort capture files in the database.
D. This command tells MySQL to populate the database using the fields provided by Snort.
E. This command tells MySQL where to find the source data for connecting to Snort.
Answer: D

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NO.13 In the image, there are two nodes communicating directly, without an access point. In the packet on
the right side of the image, the Address 1 field is blank. If this packet is going to the other computer, what
is the value that must be filled in this blank address field?
A. 2345
B. 1234
C. ABCD
D. <null>
E. ABCD-1234
Answer: B

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NO.14 You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there
are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware
failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E

EXIN   SCNS   SCNS   SCNS

NO.15 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

EXIN   SCNS   SCNS   SCNS

NO.16 You are monitoring the network traffic on your Frame-Relay Internet connection. You notice a large
amount of unauthorized traffic on port 21. You examine the packets, and notice there are no files being
transferred. Traffic on what other port must be examined to view any file contents?
A. 20
B. 119
C. 23
D. 80
E. 2021
Answer: A

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NO.17 The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that
establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500
series running IOS 11.2.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7
will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D's Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes
7 and Router D's Int E0.
Answer: D

EXIN   SCNS examen   SCNS examen

NO.18 What step in the process of Intrusion Detection as shown in the exhibit would determine if given alerts
were part of a bigger intrusion, or would help discover infrequent attacks?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 10
E. 4
Answer: C

EXIN   SCNS   certification SCNS   SCNS

NO.19 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

EXIN   SCNS   SCNS   SCNS examen

NO.20 You are configuring a Cisco Router, and are creating Access Control Lists as part of the security of the
network. When creating Wildcard Masks, which of the following rules apply?
A. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
B. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
C. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
D. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
E. To create a Wildcard Mask, always take the inverse of the Subnet Mask.
Answer: A,D

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NO.21 Your network traffic has increased substantially over the last year, and you are looking into your
caching options for frequently visited websites. What are the two types of caching that ISA Server 2006
supports?
A. Reverse caching
B. Forward caching
C. Inverse caching
D. Recursive caching
E. Real-time caching
Answer: A,B

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NO.22 During your review of the logs of your Cisco router, you see the following line. What is the meaning of
this line?
%SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty1 (172.16.10.1)
A. A normal, but noteworthy event
B. An informative message
C. A warning condition has occurred
D. A debugging message
E. An error condition has occurred
Answer: A

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NO.23 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server
2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.24 You are configuring your new IDS machine, where you have recently installed Snort. While you are
working with this machine, you wish to create some basic rules to test the ability to log traffic as you desire.
Which of the following Snort rules will log any tcp traffic from any host other than 172.16.40.50 using any
port, to any host in the 10.0.10.0/24 network using any port? A. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any ->
10.0.10.0/24 any
B. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
C. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
D. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
E. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <- 10.0.10.0/24 any
Answer: B

EXIN   SCNS   certification SCNS   SCNS

NO.25 If you wish to create a new rule in ISA Server 2006 so that all file attachments with an .exe extension
that come through the firewall are dropped, what would you select in the Toolbox to create this rule?
A. Content Type
B. User Group
C. Destination Set
D. Protocol Set
E. Extension Type
Answer: A

EXIN   SCNS examen   SCNS

NO.26 You are working on your companys IPTables Firewall; you wish to create a rule to address traffic using
ports 1024 through 2048. Which of the following would you use during the creation of your rule?
A. p:1024 P:2048
B. P:1024 p2048
C. p=1024-2048
D. 1024-2048
E. 1024:2048
Answer: E

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NO.27 During a training presentation, that you are delivering, you are asked how wireless networks function,
compared to the OSI Model. What two layers of the OSI Model are addressed by the 802.11 standards? A.
Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Session
Answer: A,B

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NO.28 For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of
the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside
the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B

EXIN   SCNS   SCNS   SCNS examen   SCNS   SCNS examen

NO.29 As per the specifications of RFC 1191: Path MTU Discovery, MTUs have been defined so that
transmitted datagram will not unnecessarily become fragmented when traveling across different types of
physical media. You are going to run several packet captures to be sure there are no out of spec packets
on your network. According to these specifications what are the absolute minimum and maximum MTUs?
A. 1492 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
B. 68 Bytes and 65535 Bytes respectively
C. 512 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
D. 512 bits and 1500 bits respectively
E. 512 bits per second and 1500 bits per second respectively
Answer: B

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NO.30 You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current
configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any
network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C

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Les meilleures EXIN ITSM20F examen pratique questions et réponses

C'est pas facile à passer le test Certification EXIN ITSM20F, choisir une bonne formation est le premier bas de réussir, donc choisir une bonne resource des informations de test EXIN ITSM20F est l'assurance du succès. Pass4Test est une assurance comme ça. Une fois que vous choisissez le test EXIN ITSM20F, vous allez passer le test EXIN ITSM20F avec succès, de plus, un an de service en ligne après vendre est gratuit pour vous.

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Code d'Examen: ITSM20F
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (IT Service Management Foundation based on ISO/IEC 20000 (ITSM20F.EN))
Questions et réponses: 78 Q&As

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NO.1 Through which process does the implementation of new or changed services, including closure of a
service, need to be planned and approved.?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B

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NO.2 Deming proposed a system of continuous improvement.
Which four activities does this system involve?
A. Plan. Do. Check and Act
B. Plan. Do. Evaluate and Act
C. Plan. Perform. Audit and Improve
D. Plan. Perform. Evaluate and Act
Answer: A

EXIN examen   ITSM20F   certification ITSM20F

NO.3 What is a Configuration Baseline?
A. A benchmark of the service provider's capability
B. A configuration audit report
C. A snapshot of the state of an IT Service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time
D. The change requests allocated to a release
Answer: C

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NO.4 Quality Management Systems can assist organizations in enhancing what?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. ISO/EC 20000
C. Relationship with third parties
D. Supplier satisfaction
Answer: A

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NO.5 What has to be included in a well defined process?
A. Expected outcomes
B. Functions
C. Statistical support
D. Timelines
Answer: A

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NO.6 One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held
in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends.
Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this?
A. Error Control
B. Identification of root causes
C. Proactive Problem Management
D. Problem Control
Answer: C

EXIN   ITSM20F   ITSM20F examen

NO.7 What is known as a temporary solution that enables the user to continue working?
A. Known Error
B. Request For Change (RFC)
C. Service Request
D. Workaround
Answer: D

EXIN examen   ITSM20F examen   ITSM20F

NO.8 Different types of events are reported to the Service Desk. Which event is an incident?
A. Information about the rollout of a specific application
B. A notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer
C. A report that the printer is not working
D. A request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package
Answer: C

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NO.9 What would increase the amount of detail in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Increasing the scope of the CMDB
B. Increasing the number of attributes of each Configuration Item (CI) in the CMDB
C. Increasing the number of records in the CMDB
D. Increasing the use of the CMDB
Answer: B

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NO.10 In recent months at a transport company with 1500 desktops, dozens of requests have been received
for expansion of the internal memory because its size has proven to be insufficient.
Which process should have prevented this from happening?
A. Capacity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

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EXIN SCNP-EN examen pratique questions et réponses

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Nom d'Examen: EXIN (SCNP Strategic Infrastructure Security exam)
Questions et réponses: 233 Q&As

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NO.1 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single
page on the site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this
user most likely getting ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP .
Answer: A

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NO.2 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the
information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to
evaluate is the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the
following, what pieces of information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: A, B, C, D

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NO.3 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your
company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially
dangerous Social Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the
call the writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite
the administrator to speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller
asks the receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and
software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in
evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk
asking to reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming
from the ISP to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's
configuration data and the emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover
to the new equipment.
Answer: D, E

EXIN   SCNP-EN   SCNP-EN

NO.4 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory,
regulatory or contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance
of systems with organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and
interruption to business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information
processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for
information security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to
ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized
access to information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent
unauthorized computer access.
Answer: B

EXIN   SCNP-EN   SCNP-EN

NO.5 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: EE0-512
Nom d'Examen: Exam Express (F5-Big-ip v9 local traffic management advanced)
Questions et réponses: 48 Q&As

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NO.1 As a part of the Setup Utility, the administrator sets the host name for the BIG-IP . What would
be the result if the two systems in a redundant pair were set to the same host name?
A. Host names do not matter in redundant pair communication.
B. In a redundant pair, the two systems will always have the same host name. The parameter is
synchronized between the systems.
C. The first time the systems are synchronized the receiving system will be assigned the same self-IP
addresses as the source system.
D. When the administrator attempts to access the configuration utility using the host name, they
will always connect to the active system.
Answer: C

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NO.2 If a self-IP's port lockdown is set to "allow 443", which statement describes allowed
communication to that address?
A. Access is available to the Configuration Utility.
B. Serial console access is prevented since only port 443 access is allowed.
C. Access may be available via SSH dependent upon the /etc/host.allow settings.
D. The partner BIG-IP will be able to synchronize and mirror connection and persistence information.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which result could come from running a single bigpipe command?
A. A monitor can be defined and associated with an existing pool.
B. A virtual server can be defined and associated with an existing pool.
C. An iRule can be define and associated with an existing virtual server.
D. A profile can be defined and associated with an existing virtual server.
Answer: B

Exam Express   EE0-512   EE0-512

NO.4 If a self-IP port lockdown is set to "allow default", which three ports will accept administrative
traffic? (Choose three.)
A. SSH
B. DNS
C. HTTP
D. SMTP
E. HTTPS
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 Which statement is true concerning packet filters?
A. Filters cannot prevent application viruses.
B. Filters cannot prevent the BIG-IP synching process from taking place.
C. The order of filters does not affect which traffic is accepted or denied.
D. In addition to administrator-created filters, there always exists a "deny all" filter that processes
traffic last.
Answer: A

Exam Express   EE0-512 examen   EE0-512

NO.6 Which file contains the allowed IP addresses for SSH access?
A. /etc/hosts.deny
B. /etc/sshd_allow
C. /etc/hosts.allow
D. /etc/sshd_secure
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-520
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Calriion solutions specialist exam)
Questions et réponses: 520 Q&As

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NO.1 Which object would maintain the changes to a source LUN in the event a MirrorView/S configuration
suffered a link outage followed by an SP trespass?
A.Metavolume
B.Fracture log
C.Write intent log
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:C

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NO.2 Should a SnapView session stop automatically, what will happen to the running sessions?
A.All sessions pointing to the clone will fail over to SP B and continue to write.
B.All sessions running on the source LUN will be terminated.
C.Host buffers will be flushed and sessions restarted.
D.All memory mapping entries will be saved to the COFW log.
Answer:A

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NO.3 What makes sizing of the reserved LUN pool a non-trivial task?
A.Reserved LUNs are assigned to specific source LUNs when the CLARiiON is laid out.
B.Source LUNs can be different sizes and only write to LUNs of the same size.
C.Reserved LUN pools may be different sizes and allocation to source LUNs is based on the next
available reserved LUN.
D.There are 512 reserved LUNs in all CLARiiON models while there may be many more source LUNs.
Answer:C

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NO.4 A storage administrator wants to use a point-in-time copy of a production LUN for testing and possibly
keep any changed data from that copy. The administrator's goal is to minimize the performance impact on
the production LUN as well as use the point-in-time copy for restoring their data.What is the extent size for
this LUN?
A.Use a clone and promote it as needed
B.Use a clone and reverse-synchronize as needed
C.Use a snapshot of a clone and roll back as needed
D.Use a snapshot and deactivate command to make changes permanent on the production LUN
Answer:B

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NO.5 What is the process for flagging source LUNs?
A.Snapshots are created, changing the LUN's state.
B.Via GUI interface or CLI the state change bit is switched.
C.The PSM LUN is set to "source."
D.Via Navisphere Analyzer the FLARE LUN is changed to a PSM LUN.
Answer:A

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NO.6 If a customer wants to present a secondary image LUN of a MirrorView/S mirror set to a host, what
must they do first?
A.The primary image must be removed from the mirror set.
B.The secondary image must be placed in the host storage group.
C.The secondary image must be removed from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
D.The secondary image must be fractured from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
Answer:C

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NO.7 A customer intends to use clones in their environment. They are concerned about the usability of clone
data.They ask about the result of removing a clone from a clone group.Which statement describes the
result of that operation?
A.Clone LUN may be used for reverse-synchronization operations.
B.Clone LUN may be used for synchronization operations.
C.Data on the clone LUN is flagged in the clone private LUN.
D.Data on the clone LUN is not affected and may be used by a host.
Answer:D

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NO.8 Which statement applies when the Protected Restore option is enabled on a clone?
A.Once the reverse synchronization is complete, the clone is fractured.
B.All SnapView sessions on the source LUN must be stopped.
C.A clone cannot be marked "dirty" before starting a reverse synchronization.
D.When reverse synchronization is in process, no writes are allowed to the source LUN or clone.
Answer:A

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NO.9 In a MirrorView/S environment, a primary image is owned by SPA on the primary array. Which SP must
own the secondary image on the secondary array within the same mirror set?
A.Either SP on the secondary array
B.SPB on the secondary array
C.SPA on the secondary array
D.It is marked as a private LUN on the secondary array
Answer:C

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NO.10 What does the fracture log allow?
A.Incremental resynchronization of data
B.Creation of markers for each modified track
C.Capture of persistency errors from the source to target
D.Connectivity failures from both directions
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which device is enabled by default when creating a mirror set in a MirrorView/S environment on a
CX4-120 with FLARE 28?
A.Write intent log
B.Reserved LUN pool
C.Secondary Image
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:B

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NO.12 A customer starts four SnapView sessions on a source LUN. The sessions are scheduled to start at
8:00 A.M., 12:00 P.M., 4:00 P.M., and 8:00 P.M. At 5:15 P.M. the reserved LUN pool runs out of
space.What will happen next?
A.Most recently allocated reserved LUN will be released.
B.Reserved LUN allocated first will be released.
C.Space used by all sessions on the source LUN will be released.
D.Space used by the session that performed the most recent write will be released.
Answer:D

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NO.13 During normal MirrorView/S operations, Navisphere Manager permits host access to how many
secondary images?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.4
Answer:A

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NO.14 The number and size of SnapView pointers have reached memory allocation. What will take place to
adjust to this situation?
A.Pointers will be paged to the reserved LUN as required.
B.128 KB memory chunks will be added until the memory usage has been satisfied.
C.Pointers will be paged to and from the reserved LUN as required in 512 KB chunks.
D.An additional reserve LUN will be required.
Answer:C

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NO.15 What happens when a snapshot is deactivated?
A.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the primary host.
B.The SnapView session ends.
C.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the secondary host.
D.All metadata is removed from the SP.
Answer:C

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NO.16 The primary image of a MirrorView/S mirror set has trespassed from SPA to SPB on the primary
array.Which SP now owns the secondary image?
A.ALUA determines ownership
B.SPA on the secondary array
C.Neither SPA or SPB
D.SPB on the secondary array
Answer:D

EMC   certification E20-520   E20-520

NO.17 Which best describes the MirrorView/A replication process?
A.A write is received, tracked in the SAN Copy delta set mechanism, transmitted to the secondary array.
B.A write is received, tracked in the fracture log, transmitted to the secondary array.
C.A write is received, tracked in the SnapView private LUN, transmitted to the secondary array.
D.A write is received, tracked in the write intent log, transmitted to the secondary array.
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which statement describes the operation of the reserved LUN pool?
A.LUN IDs of reserved LUNs in the reserved LUN pool can only be between 2048 and 4096.
B.All reserved LUNs must be the same size, on FC disks, and have the same RAID type.
C.Separate reserved LUN pools are required for SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
D.Reserved LUN pool is shared between SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
Answer:D

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NO.19 What CLARiiON is needed to meet a customer's requirement for their MirrorView/S environment that
will have 50 consistency groups?
A.CX4, FLARE 22
B.CX4, FLARE 28
C.CX3, FLARE 26
D.CX3, FLARE 28
Answer:B

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NO.20 A storage administrator tries to create a clone group on a CLARiiON CX4 and receives an error
message that stops the clone group from being created.What could be a possible cause?
A.MirrorView has not been configured.
B.Population latency has not been configured.
C.No CPLs have been allocated.
D.No reserved LUNs have been allocated.
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: E20-517
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 192 Q&As

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NO.1 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host.
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices.
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You need to perform an SRDF fallback operation and must ensure the integrity of the data on the R2
volume which step must be taken.?
A. Suspend the RDF link
B. Unmount the tile system
C. Remove entries horn the file system table
D. Disable journaling on the file system
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing an SRDF split operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Write Disabled; R2 Read/Write
C. R1 Read/Write; R2 Read/Write
D. R1 Read/Write; R2 Write Disabled
Answer: C

EMC   E20-517   E20-517

NO.4 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host
Answer: B

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NO.5 A storage administrator wants to map some Symmetrix devices to an FA port for use by the Sales group
and finds that someone placed reservations on the devices for a project that no longer needs them. What
should theStorage administrator does to use those devices?
A. Use the password that was used at the time of creation to release the reservations
B. Use symconfigure to release the reservation
C. Map the devices from a host that has Symmetrix Access Control administrator privileges.
D. Use symconfigure with the force option to map the devices
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E22-186
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint Administration Exam)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator needs to assign permissions for archiving SharePoint sites with EMC SourceOne for
Microsoft SharePoint. What should the administrator use to assign those permissions?
A. SourceOne Admin group
B. SourceOne Security group
C. SharePoint groups
D. SharePoint users
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which mechanism is used by External BLOB Storage to externalize content into the SourceOne
Archive?
A. Server Message Block
B. WCF with HTTP binding
C. Remote Procedure Call
D. WebDAV
Answer: C

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NO.3 An Active Directory group has permissions for Sites A, B, and C. An end user searches for specific
documents and is presented with results from all three sites.
The SharePoint administrator deletes site B and then creates site D, granting permission to the same
Active Directory group.
The end user conducts the previous search again.
How are the end user's search results affected?
A. documents from sites A, B, C, and D are included, but documents from Site B are inaccessible from
search results
B. documents from sites A, B, C, and D are included and are accessible from search results
C. only documents from sites A and C are included and are accessible from search results
D. only documents from sites A, C, and D are included and are accessible from search results
Answer: B

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NO.4 When performing an archive search from within SharePoint, what does the Owner List contain?
A. a list of documents the user owns and can access
B. the list of Mapped folders that the user is attempting to access
C. a list of the current user's SharePoint and Active Directory groups
D. the SourceOne Access Account information and the user's current logon information
Answer: C

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NO.5 A company's SharePoint farm content databases continue to grow past the Microsoft recommended
size. What can an administrator do to alleviate this problem?
A. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Shortcut activity to replace SharePoint content with shortcut files
B. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Archive activity and copy older content to an Archive folder
C. install, configure, and enable the EMC SourceOne EBS Provider for the SharePoint farm
D. ensure automatic disposition is configured on the SourceOne Archive folder
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the preferred mechanism for SharePoint permission assignment for use with EMC SourceOne
for Microsoft SharePoint?
A. SourceOne Security group
B. Active Directory group
C. Active Directory users
D. Local users
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the function of the SharePoint Archiving activity?
A. shortcuts SharePoint items into the Native Archive
B. archives SharePoint items into a Mapped folder
C. shortcuts SharePoint items stored in the External BLOB Storage
D. archives SharePoint items stored in the External BLOB Storage
Answer: B

EMC   E22-186 examen   E22-186

NO.8 The External BLOB Storage Garbage Collection routine recovers storage from which location?
A. Message Center
B. Large Content subdirectory
C. Worker Temp directory
D. Index Temp directory
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the lowest SharePoint organizational level at which the SharePoint Archive activity can be
configured?
A. Farm
B. Site
C. List
D. Folder
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which layer in the EMC SourceOne architecture handles SharePoint archiving activities?
A. Application
B. Service
C. Provider
D. Data
Answer: B

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NO.11 A Microsoft SharePoint customer's database is running out of space due to excessive content.
What can EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint provide to help the customer.?
A. database compression
B. consolidated user interface
C. dual search mechanisms
D. storage management
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is the External BLOB Storage Garbage Collection routine?
A. a SourceOne activity
B. a SharePoint task
C. a Database stored procedure
D. a SourceOne service
Answer: B

EMC   E22-186 examen   E22-186

NO.13 How can an administrator minimize the number of permission updates in a SharePoint archive?
A. add and remove permissions for individual SharePoint users
B. add and remove groups
C. add and remove members to existing groups
D. add and remove permissions for individual Active Directory users
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint search feature can end users and administrators use
to find archived SharePoint content?
A. SharePoint Advanced Search
B. SharePoint Archive Search
C. SourceOne Discovery Manager
D. SourceOne Web Search
Answer: B

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NO.15 An archived SharePoint site with permissions exclusively assigned via a custom site-specific group is
deleted. What is the accessibility of the archived content?
A. accessible only by a user with the Administrator role on the Mapped folder
B. accessible only by the Farm Administrator
C. accessible by a user with the Administrator role on the Native Archive folder
D. accessible only after an archive permission update task is run
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is a benefit of EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint?
A. improves SharePoint performance and scalability by short-cutting content on the SharePoint SQL
servers
B. leverages the SharePoint infrastructure for retention and policy management
C. provides a single, unified search mechanism across archive and SharePoint content
D. improves management of SharePoint libraries and lists and the various content types within them
Answer: D

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NO.17 An administrator is adding a SharePoint Farm server and needs to impersonate a user with these
details:
User name = uname
Domain = corp
Which format is valid for impersonating this user?
A. corp/uname
B. uname.corp
C. uname-corp
D. uname@corp
Answer: D

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NO.18 The administrator needs to delete a site that has permissions defined via a custom site-specific group.
What should the administrator do before the site is deleted?
A. remove the custom site-specific permission
B. change the ownership of the content to Farm Administrator
C. grant Read access to all SharePoint user accounts
D. assign a higher level group with Read access
Answer: D

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NO.19 How long will a user's last query be remembered within SharePoint when the Fire-And-Forget search
feature is used?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which web browser property should all end users ensure is enabled to use SharePoint Archive
Search?
A. JavaScript
B. ActiveX plug-in
C. Applets
D. Allow pop-ups
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-002
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Cloud Infrastructure and Services Exam)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Mozy.?
A. Software-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
D. Virtualization-as-a-Service
Answer: A

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NO.2 As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense of the
organization would be expected to grow larger?
A. Power and energy
B. Management
C. Infrastructure
D. Operational
Answer: D

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NO.3 What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. Consumers are billed based on resource usage.
B. Services are provisioned based on their demand.
C. Metering services are created when required from the resource pools.
D. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which RAID types use no parity in protecting against data loss?
A. RAID 1 and Nested
B. RAID 0 and RAID 6
C. RAID 3 and RAID 5
D. RAID 5 and Nested
Answer: A

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NO.5 In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational expenditures grow in
proportion to capital expenditures?
A. On-premise Private Cloud
B. External Private Cloud
C. Public Cloud
D. Hybrid Cloud
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which RAID type uses parity to protect against data loss?
A. RAID 3
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1
D. Nested
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which parameter uniquely identifies a switch in a SAN environment?
A. Area ID
B. Port ID
C. Domain ID
D. WWN
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which component retrieves data from disk in an Intelligent Storage System?
A. Front-end
B. Cache
C. LUN
D. Back-end
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which is used to logically group FC ports?
A. Zone
B. VLAN
C. Mask
D. ISL
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which problem is addressed by RAID technologies?
A. Data corruption
B. Data backup
C. Data loss
D. Data security
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which component of a compute system performs the creation and control of logical storage?
A. Volume Manager
B. Operating System
C. DBMS
D. Application
Answer: A

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NO.12 An organization runs a proprietary operating system for its custom applications. System performance
has been declining at an increasing rate. They would like to leverage a Cloud solution to address their
problem.
Which Cloud service model would be appropriate for them?
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which Cloud service model allows the user to run any operating system and application?
A. Platform-as-a-Service
B. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which Cloud service model is most appropriate for application development?
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which is a benefit of server clustering?
A. High CPU utilization
B. High availability
C. High memory utilization
D. High security
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-007
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Data Science and Big Data Analytics)
Questions et réponses: 165 Q&As

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NO.1 You are using MADlib for Linear Regression analysis. Which value does the statement return?
SELECT (linregr(depvar, indepvar)).r2 FROM zeta1;
A. Goodness of fit
B. Coefficients
C. Standard error
D. P-value
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your company has 3 different sales teams. Each team's sales manager has developed incentive offers
to increase the size of each sales transaction. Any sales manager whose incentive program can be
shown to increase the size of the average sales transaction will receive a bonus.
Data are available for the number and average sale amount for transactions offering one of the incentives
as well as transactions offering no incentive.
The VP of Sales has asked you to determine analytically if any of the incentive programs has resulted in a
demonstrable increase in the average sale amount. Which analytical technique would be appropriate in
this situation?
A. One-way ANOVA
B. Multi-way ANOVA
C. Student's t-test
D. Wilcoxson Rank Sum Test
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your colleague, who is new to Hadoop, approaches you with a question. They want to know how best
to access their data. This colleague has a strong background in data flow languages and programming.
Which query interface would you recommend?
A. Pig
B. Hive
C. Howl
D. HBase
Answer: A

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NO.4 What does the R code
z <- f[1:10, ]
do?
A. Assigns the first 10 rows of f to the vector z
B. Assigns the 1st 10 columns of the 1st row of f to z
C. Assigns a sequence of values from 1 to 10 to z
D. Assigns the 1st 10 columns to z
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are using the Apriori algorithm to determine the likelihood that a person who owns a home has a
good credit score. You have determined that the confidence for the rules used in the algorithm is > 75%.
You calculate lift = 1.011 for the rule, "People with good credit are homeowners". What can you determine
from the lift calculation?
A. Support for the association is low
B. Leverage of the rules is low
C. The rule is coincidental
D. The rule is true
Answer: C

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NO.6 What would be considered "Big Data"?
A. An OLAP Cube containing customer demographic information about 100,000,000 customers
B. Daily Log files from a web server that receives 100,000 hits per minute
C. Aggregated statistical data stored in a relational database table
D. Spreadsheets containing monthly sales data for a Global 100 corporation
Answer: B

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NO.7 When creating a presentation for a technical audience, what is the main objective?
A. Show that you met the project goals
B. Show how you met the project goals
C. Show if the model will meet the SLA
D. Show the technique to be used in the production environment
Answer: B

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NO.8 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
You decide to run the association rules algorithm where minimum support is 50%. Which rule has a
confidence at least 50%?
A. {cheese} => {bread}
B. {juice} => {cheese}
C. {milk} => {soda}
D. {soda} => {milk}
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which type of numeric value does a logistic regression model estimate?
A. Probability
B. A p-value
C. Any integer
D. Any real number
Answer: A

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NO.10 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
The minimum support is 25%. Which rule has a confidence equal to 50%?
A. {bread,milk} => {cheese}
B. {bread} => {milk}
C. {juice} => {soda}
D. {bread} => {cheese}
Answer: D

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NO.11 In data visualization, what is used to focus the audience on a key part of a chart?
A. Emphasis colors
B. Detailed text
C. Pastel colors
D. A data table
Answer: A

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NO.12 The web analytics team uses Hadoop to process access logs. They now want to correlate this data
with structured user data residing in a production single-instance JDBC database. They collaborate with
the production team to import the data into Hadoop. Which tool should they use?
A. Sqoop
B. Pig
C. Chukwa
D. Scribe
Answer: A

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NO.13 A data scientist plans to classify the sentiment polarity of 10, 000 product reviews collected from the
Internet. What is the most appropriate model to use? Suppose labeled training data is available.
A. Na ve Bayesian classifier
B. Linear regression
C. Logistic regression
D. K-means clustering
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-007 examen   E20-007

NO.14 Under which circumstance do you need to implement N-fold cross-validation after creating a
regression model?
A. There is not enough data to create a test set.
B. The data is unformatted.
C. There are missing values in the data.
D. There are categorical variables in the model.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-007   E20-007   E20-007

NO.15 In which lifecycle stage are test and training data sets created?
A. Model building
B. Model planning
C. Discovery
D. Data preparation
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is an appropriate data visualization to use in a presentation for an analyst audience?
A. Pie chart
B. Area chart
C. Stacked bar chart
D. ROC curve
Answer: D

EMC   E20-007   E20-007   certification E20-007   E20-007 examen   E20-007

NO.17 In R, functions like plot() and hist() are known as what?
A. generic functions
B. virtual methods
C. virtual functions
D. generic methods
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which data asset is an example of quasi-structured data.?
A. Webserver log
B. XML data file
C. Database table
D. News article
Answer: A

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NO.19 When would you use GROUP BY ROLLUP clause in your OLAP query?
A. where all subtotals and grand totals are to be included in the output
B. where only the subtotals are to be included in the output
C. where only the grand totals are to be included in the output
D. where only specific subtotals and grand totals for a combination of variables are to be included in the
output
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which word or phrase completes the statement? Data-ink ratio is to data visualization as __________ .
A. Confusion matrix is to classifier
B. Data scientist is to big data
C. Seasonality is to ARIMA
D. K-means is to Naive Bayes
Answer: A

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