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Code d'Examen: 000-M76
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Master Data Management Server Technical Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 44 Q&As

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NO.1 What is multiform master data management?
A. Manages master data across multiple data domains
B. Manages master data across multiple data domains, provides analytical functions like a data
warehouse
C. Manages master data across multiple data domains, provides operational, collaborative, and analytical
functions
D. Focuses deeply on a single data domain; can manage master data across multiple domains when
needed; data is operational
Answer: C

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NO.2 If SDP finds a suspect duplicate party, you may need to use the Data Stewardship feature functionality
to:.?
A. Search and inquire for parties marked as suspect duplicates
B. Collapse parties together
C. Split parties apart
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which feature is used to update attribute values in party demographics native XML?
A. UPDATE SQL ?entire XML is replaced
B. XPATH ?specific XML value is updated
C. Spec version is updated
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which file defines the dtd snippet for the new attributes in data extension?
A. tcrmRequest_extension.dtd
B. myTCRM.dtd
C. tCRMResponse.dtd
D. DWLAdminrequest_extension.dtd
Answer: A

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NO.5 SDP on or off is configured in which of the following:
A. configelement table
B. SDP table
C. External Rule
D. Suspect table
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 000-M93
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture Product Fundamentals Tech Mas)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 The two main databases serviced by Taskmaster Server are called:
A. Alpha and Beta.
B. Test and Production.
C. Maintenance and Security.
D. Admin and Engine.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a primary competitive advantage of Rulerunner Service?
A. Actions only return TRUE or FALSE.
B. It is decoupled from Taskmaster so it can be used with other applications.
C. It is the only capture product with claims of being rule driven.
D. It is open source.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is TRUE.?
A. Taskmaster Server pushes work to machines dedicated to a specific task.
B. Taskmaster clients ask Taskmaster server if there is any work to be done.
C. Only one Taskmaster client may perform a given Task.
D. Batch routing depends on the Taskmaster server configuration.
Answer: B

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000-M60 dernières questions d'examen certification IBM et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: 000-M60
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Lotus Symphony Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 Jane is new to Lotus Symphony and she wants to know what are the advantages of using Mail Merge.
Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of Mail Merge.?
A. You can send attachments as PDF, not just ODF.
B. You can send out batches of letters that merge fields from a data source.
C. You can use Java API to execute mail merge operation in the background.
D. You can select a data source and merge its fields into a new document.
Answer: C

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NO.2 DataPilot table consists of which 4 areas?
A. Page area, Title area, Data area and Detail area
B. Row area, Column area, Data area and Page area
C. Title area, Row area, Column area and Data area
D. Top area, Bottom area, Left area and Right area
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which APIs does Symphony Presentation Object Model provide?
A. APIs to open, save and close presentation
B. APIs to save presentation to Lotus Notes database
C. APIs to convert presentation to Microsoft PowerPoint format
D. APIs to convert presentation to XML format
Answer: A

IBM   000-M60   000-M60

NO.4 The purpose of Symphony Java API is ___________.
A. to have a standardize way of utilizing functionality of Symphony from within your Symphony
applications.
B. to display Java Server Pages in Symphony.
C. to allow Java application to run from within Symphony.
D. to support Javascript scripting language just like a web browser.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is one of the advantages of Symphony being built on top of Expeditor?
A. It allows you to create artificial intelligence applications.
B. It allows you to write .NET applications and integrate them with documents.
C. It allows you to synchronize every character of a document with a server.
D. It allows you to embed business productivity tooling in line of business workflow and vice-versa.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: LOT-910
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Deployment & Administration Update)
Questions et réponses: 64 Q&As

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NO.1 Which option best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content mapping from the
portal page where the content is rendered, and then delete the template library used to create the wiki.
D. Statements A, B, and C are valid.
E. Only Statement A and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT true regarding WebSpere Portal v7.0 and VMware support?
A. VMware can only be used when WebSphere Portal v7.0 is not clustered.
B. VMware can be used in a clustered WebShere Portal v7.0 environment.
C. VMware can be used in a non-clustered WebSphere Portal v7.0 environment.
D. VMware and WebSphere Portal v7.0 allow mass-replication of identical operating systems
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Resources registered with the tagging and rating engine can be grouped by administrators. Which of
the following options best describes the methods by which resources are grouped?
A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a portal farm.?
A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.
Answer: B

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Pass4Test offre une formation sur IBM LOT-920 matériaux examen

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Code d'Examen: LOT-920
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebShpere Portal 7.0 Deployment and Administration)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 Resources registered with the tagging and rating engine can be grouped by administrators. Which of
the following options best describes the methods by which resources are grouped?
A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
Answer: C

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NO.2 Ronnie is designing a WebSphere Portal environment for her company in which multiple
organizations within the company want to provide different portal environments to distinct user groups.
What feature of WebSphere Portal should she use to meet this need?
A. Virtual portals with separate user realms and administrators to minimize hardware costs and
configuration efforts
B. Multiple clusters in the same cell to avoid duplicate portal installations
C. Multiple portal installations on the same hardware using server virtualization to reduce
hardware costs
D. Shared portals to avoid duplicate effort between each portal
Answer: A

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NO.3 Sherry is preparing the ConfigEngine properties files of different portal servers for their
development, quality test, and production environments. She has noticed that the majority of the
properties are the same except the names for the server hosts, nodes, and so on. Which of the following
options would be the most efficient way for her to do this task?
A. Modify the properties file generated for each portal server separately.
B. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations and specify the location of the parent
properties file to be used when executing
the ConfigEngine tasks.
C. Modify the properties file generated for one of portal servers, copy it to other portal server,s and then
change those names manually.
D. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations, and create a script to be able to replace
the properties of the properties files for
each portal server with the properties from the parent properties file automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. If he is using a 32-bit version of WebSphere Portal
and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory. What type of cluster configuration should
he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration types
D. A multiproduction cluster because it meets both high availability and high performance criteria
Answer: C

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NO.5 Where does the WebSphere Portal installation wizard log all messages?
A. <WebSphere Portal Root>/log directory
B. <WebSphere Portal Root>/InstallLog directory
C. c:\wpInstallLog.txt file
D. <profile>/PortalServer/temp/InstallLog directory
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content mapping from the
portal page where the content is
rendered, and then delete the template library used to create the wiki.
D. Statement A, Statement B, and Statement C are valid.
E. Only Statement A, and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a portal farm?
A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.
Answer: B

IBM   certification LOT-920   LOT-920

NO.8 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Jeremy has connected his WebSphere Portal instance to an IBM Tivoli Directory Server repository for
authentication purposes. However, while the majority of users are able to authenticate, certain users are
not able to. Jeremy confirmed that the users are attempting to authenticate with the correct user ID and
password. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The users should log in with an email address instead of a user ID.
B. The location of the accounts in the LDAP tree is outside the scope of where WebSphere Portal looks
for accounts.
C. The accounts are not members of the All Authenticated Portal Users group.
D. The LDAP bind password is configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Monica is working with clients to architect the security of their new portal, which is a two-server
clustered environment. Her client stores employee accounts in Microsoft Active Directory, and customer
accounts in IBM Tivoli Directory Server. Both employees and customers must be able to log in to the
portal. Which of the following statements is correct.?
A. The client must move all accounts into a single directory, and either of the two directory servers are
appropriate.
B. The client should have one cluster member use Active Directory for authentication, and the other
cluster member use Tivoli Directory Server.
C. The client must use distinct virtual portals for each of the two type of users (employee or customer) to
handle this scenario.
D. It is acceptable to have multiple directory servers used for authentication for all servers in a single
cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Jim is planning on setting up a Web Content Management System for his company internet and intranet
site. He does not want any of the users to perform authoring actions like creating or editing content in this
server. And he wants them to create/modify content in a separate environment. Identify the best options
that he can consider
A. The WCM content has to be created in the same server it is rendered from.
B. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then setup syndication to replicate data
from Authoring Server to a Deliver Server and render content in deliver server.
C. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then utilize the WSRP support in the
JSR 286 web content viewer to display
content on a remote WebSphere Portal server or cluster.
D. Both B & C
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following best describes the difference between horizontal and vertical clustering?
A. Vertical clustering allows for users to authenticate against multiple LDAP sources; horizontal clustering
allows multiple servers to act as one
server.
B. Horizontal clustering replicates the back-end database in real-time; vertical clustering takes advantage
of multiple WebSphere servers as a
single cell.
C. Vertical clustering takes full advantage of the resources of a multiprocessor system; horizontal
clustering provides fault-tolerance and
scalability by adding additional servers.
D. Horizontal clustering allows multiple HTTP servers to serve in a failover scenario; vertical clustering
allows Portal servers to combine processor
and memory into one server.
Answer: C

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NO.13 After installing a WebSphere Portal V7.0 and a WebSphere Virtual Enterprise server as a primary
server, which of the following options should be done to create a dynamic cluster in a WebSphere
Extended Deployment cell?
A. Run the addNode command to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, andrun the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set up the cluster.
B. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, and run the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set
up the cluster.
C. Run the addNode tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere Extended
Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
D. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell,create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere
Extended Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.14 At a high level, which of the following options best describes the sequence of steps that one should
take when setting up a WebSphere Portal static cluster?
A. 1. Install and configure WebSphere Portal as a stand-alone node for each cluster node.
2. Federate each portal server node to the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Create a portal cluster using the ConfigEngine tasks.
4. Configure the cluster members to use the same database and user registry.
B. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a managed node for each portal
node in the cluster.
2. Federate each of these nodes into the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Install and configure WebSphere Portal on each portal server node.
4. Use ConfigEngine tasks to configure the database, user registry, and create the cluster.
C. 1. Install WebSphere Portal on the first node, configure the database, and use the
ConfigEngine tasks to create a profile template.
2. Prepare the first node to communicate WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment,and use
addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to
configure the cluster and user registry.
3. Install WebSphere Portal on additional nodes and use the profile template to configure.
4. Use the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to federate the additional nodes and complete the cluster
setup.
D. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a cell and managed node for
each portal node in the cluster.
2. Use the WebSphere Portal cluster profile template to install WebSphere Portal onto each node.
3. Use the ConfigEngine tasks to configure the nodes to use the same database and user registy.
4. Federate each of these nodes into the cluster by using the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following options describes a dynamic portal cluster?
A. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Extended Deployment
B. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
C. A portal cluster with a dynamic amount of JVM heap in each cluster member
D. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Dynamic Cluster Manager
Answer: A

IBM   LOT-920   LOT-920   LOT-920

NO.16 Tom is going to install a production WebSphere Portal server by replicating the installation someone
else did for the test server. Where can he get the installation information generated during the previous
installation of the test server?
A. <intall_tmp>/wpinstalllog.txt
B. <wp_root>/log/responselog.txt
C. <wp_root>/log/installresponse.txt
D. < intall_tmp>/installmessages.txt
Answer: B

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NO.17 Don is designing a highly available, secure, high traffic public website for his company. If he wants to
use WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A. Dynamic cache and a stand-alone portal server with disaster recovery
B. An authentication and authorization solution, a load balancing solution, a portal cluster with HTTP
servers handling static content, and
clustered LDAP servers and database servers
C. A portal cluster, step-up authentication, and network-attached storage devices
D. An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a portal cluster
Answer: B

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NO.18 Bill wants to set up a WebSphere Portal farm with four server instances. Which of the following
statements regarding portal farms is true?
A. All four server instances that become a part of portal farm can be installed on different
operating systems.
B. Session persistence is enabled by default on all four server instances..
C. All the server instances need to be configured such that they have an identical security
configuration and user repository, such as LDAP.
D. Portal and content caches across all four server instances are replicated seamlessly.
Answer: C

IBM   LOT-920   LOT-920

NO.19 Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding Multiple Profiles?
A. Multiple profiles share the program files (binaries)
B. Each portal profile maintains its own independent configuration
C. ConfigEngine commands must be performed at the master configuration in order to propagate
changes across all virtual profiles
D. All virtual profiles must be taken down when performing maintenance on the Portal installation
Answer: C

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NO.20 Jim wants to enable the dynamic cache of output from portlet JSPs for different windows and portlet
states. What does he need to do?
A. He needs to enable Servlet Caching using the Deployment Manager Administrative Console.
B. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the Deployment Manager Administrative Console.
C. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the portal administrative portlets.
D. He needs to enable Servlet Caching and the Portlet Fragment Caching in the administrative console
for the application server.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: COG-700
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 Planning Application)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 When importing from Cognos Package Data into an A-Table, what is the minimum number of query
items that must be selected?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B

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NO.2 Why would an administrator publish data to a table-only layout, instead of a view layout?
A. The administrator wants to publish only detail (non-calculated) plan data.
B. The administrator wants to publish the data to an Oracle database.
C. The administrator wants to use the published data with the Publish to Cognos Metrics Manager
extension.
D. The administrator wants to publish the data to a SQL Server database.
Answer: A

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NO.3 In the Contributor Administration Console, the Generate Framework Manager model administration
extension creates a Framework Manager model from what type of data source?
A. A view only published data source
B. A table only published data source
C. A Contributor application data source
D. An Analyst application data source
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which method of mapping must the modeler use to change the sign (+/-) of selected data items being
transfered by D-Link?
A. Match description
B. Local allocation
C. D-Cube allocation
D. Saved A-Table
Answer: D

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NO.5 In a distributed Cognos Planning environment, where is the online Contributor application stored and
maintained?
A. On the datastore
B. On the report server
C. On the job server
D. On the dispatcher
Answer: A

IBM   COG-700   COG-700

NO.6 The Cash Flow D-Cube tracks incoming and outgoing cash each month. The amount of cash going out
each month is always a fraction of the opening balance for the period (such as 20%). Which BiF should be
used to calculate the opening and closing balances?
A. @Movsum
B. @DelayDebt
C. @FeedParam
D. @StockFlow
Answer: C

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NO.7 A D-Cube calculates monthly revenue by product. Revenue for a product is equal to the unit sale price
multiplied by the quantity sold. If the modeler is applying a weighted average to the Unit Sale Price item,
which should be used for the weighting?
A. Revenue
B. Quantity sold
C. Number of months
D. Number of products
Answer: B

IBM   certification COG-700   COG-700   COG-700

NO.8 Which statement is true about sorting D-Cube data?
A. D-List items can be sorted alphabetically
B. Saving a D-Cube saves only the data but not the sort order
C. Rows can be sorted using one criteria and columns using another
D. An indicator appears on sorted D-Lists that allows switching of the sort order
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which Cognos 8 role is needed to ensure that only the required users, groups, and roles have access
to execute or schedule Contributor macros that are published to Cognos Connection?
A. Planning Rights Administrators
B. Planning Contributor Users
C. Directory Administrators
D. Server Administrators
Answer: A

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NO.10 A target D-Cube in Analyst contains data for Central Europe, Southern Europe, and Northern Europe.
The modeler wants to transfer data into this D-Cube from an ASCII file that contains only data for
Southern Europe and Northern Europe. Given that all dimensions are paired using Match Description,
what must the modeler do to ensure that the Central Europe data in the target D-Cube does not get
erased when the D-Link runs?
A. Set the mode to Substitute
B. Assign Central Europe as the Dump item
C. Apply a "hold" command to data for Central Europe
D. Nothing; the D-Link will only transfer data for paired items
Answer: A

IBM   COG-700   COG-700

NO.11 A modeler creates a D-Link that transfers data from an ASCII file called Franchise into a D-Cube called
Income Statement. According to proven practices, what is the recommended name for the D-Link?
A. Franchise>Income Statement
B. Franchise.csv>Inc State
C. Income Statement<Franchise
D. Income Statement<Franchise.csv
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which statement is true about using a D-Cube allocation in a D-Link?
A. The D-Cube used for the allocation can only have two dimensions
B. The D-Cube slice can contain data formatted as text, numeric, or date/time
C. A D-Cube slice can only be used for allocation in one D-Link
D. The D-Cube slice can only contain one page of data
Answer: D

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NO.13 Users of the Contributor Web grid want to be able to import data from ASCII files and Excel files as well
as local Contributor dat a.
These end users do not have any rights in the Contributor Administration Console or Analyst. What must
these users create?
A. System Link
B. Administration Link
C. D-Link
D. Local Link
Answer: D

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NO.14 A modeler wants to create a macro that updates all D-Cubes in the model. What is the fastest way for
the modeler to create this macro?
A. Use the Macro Record option
B. Use the Macro Run option
C. Use the Macro Wizard option
D. Use the Trace Macro option
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is a D-Link using a virtual dimension on the source side called?
A. Lookup D-Link
B. Internal D-Link
C. Allocation D-Link
D. Accumulation D-Link
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: COG-632
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Metadata Model Developer)
Questions et réponses: 53 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 10 security environment.?
A. Cognos 10 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time.
B. To perform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined.
C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for users, groups
and roles defined in the authentication providers.
D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for groups and
roles (of which users are members), not individual users.
Answer: C

IBM   COG-632 examen   COG-632   COG-632 examen

NO.2 The groups and roles defined in the Cognos namespace can be used to assign access rights to which of
the following Framework Manager objects?
A. Query items.
B. Data sources.
C. Relationships.
D. Parameter maps.
Answer: A

IBM examen   certification COG-632   COG-632

NO.3 With respect to Cognos 10 security, which of the following is true of the Cognos namespace?
A. Only contains predefined groups and roles.
B. Can be used to create custom groups, roles and users.
C. Can be used to create Cognos 10 specific groups and roles.
D. Can be deleted if a different namespace is used to secure the environment.
Answer: C

certification IBM   COG-632   COG-632   COG-632   COG-632 examen

NO.4 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the implementation of object security in
Framework Manager?
A. Groups and roles can be created in the Cognos namespace when specifying access to objects.
B. Even when object security is applied, if anonymous access is configured, every object in a Framework
Manager project is visible to everyone.
C. A user belongs to two groups. One of the groups is denied access to an object. The other group is
granted access to the object. The result is that user has access to the object.
D. Granting access to an object for one user, group or role (except the Everyone and All
Authenticated Users groups), implicitly denies access to that object for all other users, groups or roles.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is true when applying object security in Framework Manager?
A. If beginning to apply security by specifying object security on an object with no children, all other
objects remain accessible to all users.
B. If beginning to apply security by specifying object security on an object with no children, all other
objects will not be accessible to all users.
C. Allow overrides Deny if specified in the properties of the object.
D. Child objects only inherit security from their parent if the Inherit property is set to Yes.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-109
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux - v2 )
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 What tool can an architect use to determine which is the smallest POWER7 server that will provide
equal or better overall performance than a POWER5 570?
A. Facts and Features Guide
B. LPAR Validation Tool
C. Configurator for eBusiness
D. Server Magic
Answer: A

IBM   000-109 examen   certification 000-109   000-109 examen   000-109

NO.2 Requirements for a disaster recovery site are being collected. When considering restoring a VIO Server
mksysb to disaster recovery hardware,
what is required to ensure automatic virtual device recreation?
A. LPAR profiles must be accurately recreated on the foreign machine
B. Backups of both mksysb and user-defined structures are required from the VIO Server
C. The foreign machine must be of the same model and type
D. Configuration of the existing HMC needs to be preserved
Answer: A

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NO.3 An administrator is attempting to configure a new deployment of 56 POWER7 Blades across 4 IBM
BladeCenter H chassis. Each blade will be installed with an IVM and 2 LPARs.IVM is installed and the
administrator checks that both LHEA ports are reporting a Link State of "Up." 2 LPARs are created and the
network traffic balanced by allocating one LHEA port to the first LPAR, the second port to the other. After
successfully installing the first LPAR via NIM, the administrator finds the second LPAR fails to netboot.
What should the administrator verify on the BladeCenter Chassis?
A. That 4 power supplies (PSU) have been installed.
B. That both the external LHEA ports have been cabled.
C. That a secondary I/O module has been installed and cabled.
D. That the Multi-Core Scaling (MCS) attribute is correctly set on both LHEA ports.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which interface must be used to provide virtualization of tape library devices to client LPARs?
A. USB
B. LTO
C. Virtual SCSI
D. Virtual Fibre Channel
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-109   certification 000-109   000-109

NO.5 An administrator has the following configuration on a VIO Server:
Why is this error being displayed?
A. ent3 is configured as 'standard' instead of '802.3ad'
B. ent3 is a LHEA port and requires the -L flag
C. ent3 has no interface connected
D. ent3 is controlled by the SEA
Answer: D

IBM   000-109   certification 000-109   000-109   000-109 examen

NO.6 The wlmstat -@ 2 command has been run from a global environment with the following results:
What action can an administrator take to set limits, so that both server1 and server2 use the same amount
of CPU resources?
A. Use the cpu_deallocate -P command to reduce the CPU resources on server2
B. Use the chsysres command to assign the same CPU attributes to both servers.
C. Use the chwpar -R command to set the CPU attributes for each server.
D. Use the syncwpar -E command to copy the CPU resource allocation from server1 to server2.
Answer: C

IBM   000-109   000-109   000-109 examen   000-109

NO.7 An administrator is performing a Live Partition Mobility (LPM) operation between two servers managed
by different HMCs.
While monitoring the performance of the partition, the virtual console window suddenly closes. What is the
most likely cause?
A. The virtual console is controlled by the HMC and closes when the second takes control of the partition.
B. The virtual console is a connection to the FSP of the physical server and closes when the LPAR
migrates.
C. The SSH keys have not been exchanged between HMCs.
D. The FSP has the MAC address for the first HMC cached in NVRAM.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A Linux LPAR is configured using 802.1Q.
The virtual Ethernet device is configured as an 802.1Q compatible adapter and has VLAN ID 5 configured
in the 802.1Q additional VLAN field.
The administrator runs the following commands on the Linux LPAR shell without errors:
vconfig add eth0 5ifconfig eth0 10.0.0.2 netmask 255.255.255.0
When the administrator tries to ping 10.0.0.1, the request times out.
What is the problem?
A. The VLAN ID should be in the VLAN-ID field in the virtual Network device configuration.
B. The administrator is using the incorrect Ethernet device.
C. The 8021q module is not loaded.
D. The 802.1Q interfaces are not supported on Linux on Power Systems servers.
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-109   000-109   certification 000-109   000-109 examen

NO.9 An administrator has a requirement to back up a VIO server (VIOS) so that it can be rebuilt in the event
of a disaster.
Which set of actions will achieve this requirement.?
A. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Backup all Storage Pool Information. Run a
mksysb of the system.
B. Save "Upgrade Data" on the HMC. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Run a mksysb
of the VIOS with the -U flag.
C. Backup non rootvg structures using savevgstruct. Capture virtual mappings to a file using viosbr. Run a
backupios
D. Capture the virtual network tuning to a file using the optimizenet command. Capture all virtual device
attributes to a file using the lsattr command. Run a backupios.
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-109   000-109   000-109 examen

NO.10 An administrator is creating several LPARs on a new Power Systems server. The administrator knows
that Live Partition Mobility (LPM) will be used to distribute the workload between this new machine and
several others in the environment.
In addition to ensuring all storage is allocated through Virtual IO servers, what else must the administrator
take into consideration when creating the new LPARs?
A. LPAR names in the environment must be unique.
B. Redundant error path reporting must be configured.
C. Only LPARs belonging to the same workload group can be moved between servers.
D. The Virtual IO server code level must be the same across all servers.
Answer: A

IBM   000-109   000-109   000-109

NO.11 Which of the following is required to support AME?
A. AIX LPARs
B. Virtual I/O Server
C. A maximum of 4GB of RAM per LPAR
D. On-demand memory feature enabled
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-109   000-109

NO.12 When attempting to install a VIO client using NIM, an adminstrator finds that no disks are available for
installation. The disks are provided by NPIV through the virtual Fibre Channel adapter as described here:
Which of the following explains why is the administrator unable to see the disks?
A. The virtual fibre channel device has not been assigned to the client.
B. The HBA on the VIO server is not connected to the SAN.
C. The fibre device drivers are missing from the SPOT.
D. The LUNs have been incorrectly zoned.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-109   000-109   certification 000-109

NO.13 An administrator is preparing to upgrade the environment's dual Virtual I/O servers (VIOS) from V1.2
to V2.1
What must considered in preparation for this upgrade?
A. All client LPARs must be shutdown as both VIO servers have to be upgraded to V2.1 at the same time.
B. The VIOS must be upgraded to the latest fixpack of V1.5 before upgrading to V2.1.
C. The only upgrade method that will be supported is using NIM because the current VIOS is lower than
V1.3.
D. VIOS V2.1 requires AIX clients to be running AIX V6.1 at a minimum.
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-109   000-109   certification 000-109   000-109 examen

NO.14 An administrator is designing a new system for their existing batch environment. The current system is
a POWER5 570 with 16 cores and 128GB of RAM with a single LPAR running AIX 5.3. It takes 12 hours
to run their large batch job which is heavily CPU bound on 4 the available CPUs.
The new system will be a Power 770 with 16 cores, 128GB of RAM and the LPAR will run AIX 6.1.What
should be done to maximize the batch performance?
A. Activate TurboCore mode during batch processing
B. Disable Simultaneous Multi-threading
C. Disable Multiple Shared Processor Pools
D. Set the processor compatibility mode to POWER7
Answer: B

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NO.15 What will cause a broadcast storm when configuring redundant VIO servers with SEA failover?
A. The secondary SEA is brought online before the configured primary SEA.
B. A mismatch of defined VLANs between the primary and secondary SEA.
C. The secondary SEA is created before enabling failover on the primary SEA.
D. Incorrect EtherChannel configuration on one SEA
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-109   000-109   certification 000-109

NO.16 How can an existing AIX 5.2 LPAR, which is using SAN storage, be migrated into a versioned WPAR
(Workload Partition)?
A. Using LPM, but downtime will be required.
B. Dynamically using LAM.
C. Backup and restore a mksysb.
D. Rezone the SAN storage and use NPIV.
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-109   000-109   000-109   000-109 examen

NO.17 A Power 720 is being used to build 2 environments: Test and Production, with 2 LPARs in each
environment. Processor resources must be separated between the Test and Production environments to
reduce possible contention, while still being able to share processor resources inside each own
environment.
What are the two features required, as a minimum, to accomplish this? (Select 2)
A. IVM
B. HMC
C. PowerVM Express
D. PowerVM Standard
E. IVE
F. IBM Systems Director
Answer: B,D

certification IBM   000-109   000-109   000-109   000-109 examen   000-109

NO.18 An administrator must remove any installed efixes before attempting to install a new VIO Fix Pack.
Which VIO command will advise if any VIO efixes are actually present?
A. lslpp
B. emgr
C. lssw
D. oem_platform_level
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-109   000-109   000-109   000-109   000-109 examen

NO.19 An architect is looking at the implications of uncapped weights for a new POWER7 system. The
system will consist of four uncapped logical partitions with the following weightings:
Assuming all partitions have equal entitlement and virtual processor configurations in the partition profiles,
and request additional resources from the shared processor pool over a period of 1000 cycles, how many
cycles will be allocated to LPAR B?
A. 150
B. 250
C. 300
D. 1000
Answer: C

IBM   000-109   000-109   000-109

NO.20 An LPAR is configured using Virtual IO. It has two Virtual SCSI adapters, connecting it to two VIO
servers.
The disks presented over Virtual SCSI are available across both Virtual SCSI adapters (2 paths).
Assuming 20 disks are required, what is the maximum recommended queue depth to maximize
performance?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 510
D. 512
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: LOT-922
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Developing IBM Lotus Domino 8.5.2 Applications: Advanced XPage Design)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 John has a JavaScript function in a Client Side JavaScript library which he wrote to parse some JSON
data and loop through the resulting objects. If he wanted to perform the same task in Server Side
JavaScript what would be the most efficient action?
A. write a new function in Server Side JavaScript to perform the same task
B. copy the Client Side function into a Server Side JavaScript library, add the script library to his XPage
and call the function from his Server Side
JavaScript
C. add the Client Side JavaScript library to his XPage and call the function from his server side JavaScript
D. Server Side JavaScript does not work with JSON data
Answer: B

IBM   certification LOT-922   certification LOT-922

NO.2 Frank is attempting to add some functionality to an existing XPage: ?The XPage has a Date Time
Picker edit box named "graduationDate" where users must enter their graduation date. ?Frank looks at
the HTML source of the XPage and sees that the edit box has the HTML attribute:
dojoType="ibm.xsp.widget.layout.DateTimeTextBoxContainer" ?Frank has added a combo box where
users should choose their type of Job, from the options "Intern", "Graduate" or "Experienced". ?Frank
wants to add an onchange listener to the combo box, that checks the value of the graduation date and
gives a browser alert popup dialog like "Intern and Graduate positions only available in the first 2 years
after graduation". ?Frank has looked at the HTML source of the XPage and sees that the Date Time
Picker edit box has a dojoType attribute. Which of the following code snippets should Frank use to
retrieve the graduation date before triggering the alert dialog:
A. var graduationDate = getComponent("graduationDate").getValue();
B. var graduationDate = XSP.getElementById("#{id:graduationDate}").value;
C. var graduationDate = dojo.byId("#{id:graduationDate}").value;
D. var graduationDate = dijit.byId("#{id:graduationDate}").getValue();
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification LOT-922   LOT-922

NO.3 Lydia wants to create a JSON string to represent an array with three objects. Each object has two
variables, vA and vB, set to different string values of "one", "two", "three", "four", "five", and "six". What is
the proper syntax for the JSON string?
A. [ { vA: 'one', vB: 'two' },{ vA: 'three', vB: 'four' },{ vA: 'five', vB: 'six' } ]
B. "[ { vA: 'one', vB: 'two' },{ vA: 'three', vB: 'four' },{ vA: 'five', vB: 'six' } ]"
C. "[ { vA: one, vB: two },{ vA: three, vB: four },{ vA: five, vB: six } ]"
D. new Array(new Object({ vA: 'one', vB: 'two' }), new Object({ vA: 'one', vB: 'two' }), new Object({
vA: 'one', vB: 'two' }));
Answer: B

IBM examen   LOT-922   LOT-922

NO.4 Liz wants to make the user confirm their action when they try and delete a document from the
application using a delete button. The confirmation message needs to display the title of the document in
it. What is the best way to compute this message?
A. In the client side event of the delete button use the following code:
if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete the document "
+
document1.getItemValueString('title')))
{
return true;
}else{
return false;
}
B. In the client side event of the delete button use the following code:
if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete the document "
+
"#{javascript:document1.getItemValueString('title')}"))
{
return true;
}else{
return false;
}
C. In the server side event of the delete button use the following code:
if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete the document "
+
document1.getItemValueString('title')))
{
return true;
}else{
return false;
}
D. In the server side event of the delete button use the following code:
if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete the document "
+
"#{javascript:document1.getItemValueString('title')}")
{
return true;
}else{
return false;
}
Answer: B

certification IBM   LOT-922 examen   LOT-922   certification LOT-922   LOT-922

NO.5 Jo wants to make a configurable list of countries available to the client side JavaScript of her XPage for
use in various different fields on the web page. What would be the most efficient approach?
A. Add an @DbColumn to a server side script library to look up the country list in each place it is required
B. Perform an AJAX request to get the country list from another XPage when it is required using
dojo.xhrGet
C. Use the Output Script control to create a global Client Side JavaScript object to reference when the list
is required
D. Add a @Decorum to a client side script library to look up the country list in each place it is required
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification LOT-922   certification LOT-922   LOT-922   LOT-922   LOT-922

NO.6 Elizabeth needs to parse the contents of a web page held on a remote server into an
applicationScope variable via the server side onclick event of a button using Server Side
JavaScript. How would she do this?
A. It is not possible to perform network operations from Server Side JavaScript
B. Create a new Java class to perform the operation in a Java Script Library and call it from the onclick
event of the button.
C. Create a new Java class to perform the operation in a Java Agent and call it from the onclick event of
the button.
D. Create a new Java class to perform the operation in the WebContent\WEB-INF\src folder via the
Package Explorer and call it from the onclick
event of the button.
Answer: D

IBM   LOT-922   certification LOT-922   certification LOT-922   LOT-922

NO.7 Ernie wants to add the Dojo theme "soria" to the other styling on his XPage. Which theme code will add
the appropriate class to the body tag of the outputted HTML?
A. <control>
<name>ViewRoot</name>
<property mode="override"
>
<name>styleClass</name>
<value>soria</value>
</property>
<control>
B. <control>
<name>ViewBody</name>
<property mode="override"
>
<name>styleClass</name>
<value>soria</value>
</property>
<control>
C. <control>
<name>ViewRoot</name>
<property mode="concat"
>
<name>styleClass</name>
<value>soria</value>
</property>
<control>
D. <control>
<name>ViewBody</name>
<property mode="concat"
>
<name>styleClass</name>
<value>soria</value>
</property>
<control>
Answer: C

IBM   LOT-922   LOT-922

NO.8 Aaron has created an XPages application that has a couple of XPages to surface the same data to two
different application roles in two completely different user interfaces. Each role can manipulate parts of
the data, but in both cases, the data must adhere to the same business logic and rules. What would be
the best way for Aaron to implement the same business logic in each XPage.?
A. Create a common Client-Side JavaScript Library for the XPages to share that the user interface can
use to execute the business logic
B. Use a series of Custom Controls to hold the business logic and share them amongst the XPages
C. Create a common Server-Side JavaScript Library for the XPages to share that the user
interface can use to execute the business logic
D. The user interface and the business logic in an XPage can not easily be separated and must be
maintained in each XPage
Answer: C

IBM   LOT-922   LOT-922 examen

NO.9 Dominic wants to implement the open source CSS framework called Blueprint in his XPages application.
He does not want to include any other CSS framework resources which may exist on the Domino server.
What is the best way to include all of the required CSS files in the XPages in his application?
A. In each XPage in the application add the required CSS files to the Resources section
B. Create a new theme which extends webstandard and then add each Blueprint CSS file via a resource
definition
C. Create a new theme which extends oneui and then add each Blueprint CSS file via a resource
definition
D. Create a new theme which does not have an extension property and then add each Blueprint CSS file
via a resource definition
Answer: D

IBM   LOT-922   certification LOT-922   LOT-922 examen   LOT-922 examen   LOT-922

NO.10 Rick creates a Server-Side JavaScript library, and defines a few global variables at the beginning of the
library. The JavaScript in his XPage and in the JavaScript library modify those global
variables. The server the application runs on is heavily used, and the application settings are set to Keep
Pages on Disk for best scalability. When the application executes, what is likely to happen?
A. The application will perform as expected.
B. The application will generate an error because you can not declare global Server-Side
JavaScript variables
C. The application will run, but the values of the globally defined variables may be lost when the server's
JVM garbage collects variables, causing unexpected results.
D. The application will run, but every partial or full refresh will reset the values of the global
variables when it reloads the Server-Side JavaScript library.
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification LOT-922   certification LOT-922   LOT-922

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Code d'Examen: 000-765
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Systems Management Technical V1)
Questions et réponses: 93 Q&As

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NO.1 A POWER7 customer plans to monitor, detect, and automatically react to events and establish a
heartbeat between systems. The customer plans to enable automatic switch-over for resiliency. Which of
these IBM products meets these needs?
A. PowerVM
B. PowerHA
C. Systems Director VMControl
D. Tivoli Service Automation Manager
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-765   certification 000-765   certification 000-765

NO.2 A HP customer wants to integrate the ILO adapter events into Systems Director. Which of the following
protocols would be required?
A. CIM
B. SLP
C. SNMP
D. PET
Answer: C

IBM   000-765   000-765 examen   000-765   000-765 examen

NO.3 A customer would like to test their ability to send alerts from a server to the IBM Systems Director
server Which of the following commands can they use to simulate test events?
A. Genevent
B. Sendevent
C. Testevent
D. NetEvent
Answer: A

IBM   000-765 examen   000-765 examen   000-765

NO.4 Which of the following Systems Director files would you edit to increase the light-path diagnostic LEDs
polling interval?
A. lightpath.properties
B. polling.properties
C. support.properties
D. config.properties
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-765   certification 000-765

NO.5 An IT Manager has experienced problems maintaining consistent firmware and driver versions
throughout their environment. Which of the following tools will allow them to standardize their firmware
and driver versions?
A. Systems Director Service and Support Manager
B. Systems Director Automation Manager
C. Systems Director Update Manager
D. Systems Director Real Time Diagnostics
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification 000-765   000-765 examen   000-765   certification 000-765   000-765

NO.6 A customer wants to verify they have the correct licensing in place for BOFM. Where should they look?
A. IBM Systems Director
B. AMM License Manager
C. AMM General Settings
D. AMM File Management
Answer: B

IBM   000-765   000-765   000-765 examen

NO.7 A business partner systems management professional is speaking to a new customer that has many
different hardware and software vendors. They have asked the business partner to help them provide a
consolidation blueprint. Which of the following should be suggested to the customer?
A. Chiphopper study
B. TDA
C. ATS SCON (CDAT) study
D. Perform a Proof of Concept
Answer: C

IBM   000-765 examen   certification 000-765

NO.8 A customer wants to change the boot order of multiple blades in a BladeCenter H. Which of the
following is the best place to accomplish this task?
A. IMM
B. UEFI
C. BOMC
D. AMM
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-765   000-765 examen   000-765

NO.9 Which of the following partners have developed plug-ins for IBM Systems Director?
A. CISCO, Brocade, Huawei and LSI
B. Intel, AMD, Citrix, VMware and CISCO
C. Blade Network Technologies, CISCO and QLogic
D. Brocade, CISCO, Emulex and QLogic
Answer: C

IBM   000-765   certification 000-765   000-765   000-765 examen   certification 000-765

NO.10 A Dell customer uses DRAC for systems management. Which of the following would be the IBM
equivalent.?
A. ASMP
B. ISMP
C. ASMA
D. IMM
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification 000-765   000-765

NO.11 A customer currently uses IBM Systems Director to monitor IBM servers in their datacenter. They also
have DS8000 series storage and would like to monitor that through IBM Systems Director as well. Which
tool will allow them to accomplish this goal?
A. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center
B. DS Storage Manager
C. Storage Control
D. IBM TotalStorage Manager
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-765   000-765 examen   certification 000-765   000-765   000-765

NO.12 A customer is looking to implement a systems management methodology across the enterprise. What
standard would the customer use?
A. ISO 9000
B. ITIL
C. Six Sigma
D. SNIA
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-765   000-765   000-765

NO.13 A System x customer is evaluating IBM Systems Director, however they are still not completely sure
that they want to implement. Which of the following support offerings should a specialist offer them?
A. IBM Systems Director Support Pack
B. 90 Day Startup Support
C. SWMA
D. Support Line Agreement
Answer: B

IBM   000-765 examen   000-765   000-765   certification 000-765   000-765 examen

NO.14 The IBM Systems Director Pre-Installation Utility scans the local system to identify potential problems
that could prevent IBM Systems Director from installing successfully. Which of the following problems can
be avoided by using the utility?
A. Insufficient disk space available
B. Unsupported hardware server
C. Unsupported database
D. Missing installation media
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-765   certification 000-765   000-765

NO.15 The customer is near capacity for their data center. They would like to monitor and manage power
usage in the data center to plan for future growth. Which of the following products will help?
A. AEM
B. IBM Systems Director
C. Tivoli Usage Manager
D. Tivoli Power Center
Answer: A

IBM   000-765   000-765 examen

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