Certification VMware de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen VCP-510, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: VCP-510

Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VSphere 5)

Questions et réponses: 310 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.4 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.6 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.10 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.13 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.16 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.17 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.20 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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Code d'Examen: VCP510

Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VSphere 5)

Questions et réponses: 310 Q&As

VCP510 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/VCP510.html

NO.1 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.11 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.12 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.14 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.15 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.16 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.19 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.20 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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Code d'Examen: VCP-410J

Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4 (VCP-410日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 320 Q&As

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NO.1 ESX 4.x の゗ンストールを実行するときは、 サービス? コンソール? フゔ゗ル? システ ムの
有効な場所は次のどれですか（二つ選んでください）?? 。
A. 共有 VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖスク内。
B. SAN デゖスク上の ESX ホストのみにマスクされた VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デ
ゖスク内。
C. ローカルストレー ジにある ext3 フゔ゗ルシステム内。
D. ローカルストレー ジ上の VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖ スク内。
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 管理者は物理サ ーバーに ESX 4.x を゗ンストールしています。
正常な゗ンストールをサポートするために、 次のコンポーネントのどれが変更されるま たは
交換される必要があるでしょうか。
A. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
B. SATA disk controller
C. 1GB RAM
D. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
Answer: C

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NO.3 次のストレージ· リソースのどれが ESX 4.x の゗ンストール時のみに作成されています
か（二つ選んでください） 。
A. vmkcore
B. swap
C. VMFS datastore
D. scratch
Answer: A,B

VMware   VCP-410J   certification VCP-410J

NO.4 管理者は、 サー ビスコンソールのメモリ要件を増加させる ESX 4.x ホスト上でサポート
される追加コンポーネントを゗ンストールする予定です。
この゗ンストールを実行することについて次のどれが本当ですか（二つ選んでください） 。
A.ESX ホストのメモリには、 CLI を使用して調整する必要があり、 再起動の必要がありません。
B.vmkcore パーテゖションは、追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
C. ホストのメモリは、vSphere Client または CLI を使用して調整する必要があるでしょう。そ
して、ESX ホストは再起動する必要があります。
D. スワップパーテゖションが追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 vCenter Server 4.x を゗ンストールする場合、 ラ゗センスはどこで維持されますか （二つ
選んでください） 。
A. ESXi ホ スト上
B. ラ゗センスサーバ ー内
C. vCenter Server デー タベースで
D. vCenter Server マシ ンのラ゗センスフゔ゗ル内
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 次のタスクのど れが ESXi ホストのホーム· ページから選択することができますか （三つ
選んでください）??。
A. このホストの゗ンベントリのデータストゕを閲覧します。
B. vSphere 4 のドキュ メントを表示します
C. VMware vCenter Server をダウンロードします
D. VMware Web Access Client をダウンロード します。
E. このホストの゗ンベントリ内の仮想マシンを閲覧します。
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 次の機能のうち どれが vSphere Advanced Edition の一部ではな いのですか。
A. VMware High Availability
B. VMware Fault Tolerance
C. VMware DRS
D. VMware vShield Zones
Answer: C

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NO.8 管理者は、 SAN から起動する 10 台の ESX 4.x ホストのために、 VMFS および vmkcore パ
ーテゖションを提供する単一の SAN ボリュームを設定しています。
vmkcore パーテゖションが 10 台のホストを サポートするために、このボリューム上に存在
する必要がある最小サ゗ズはどのくらいですか。
A. vmkcore パーテゖシ ョンは、ローカルストレージに格納する必要があります
B. 1GB
C. 2GB
D. 500MB
Answer: B

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NO.9 ゕドバンスラ゗ センスで使用できるソケットあたりのコゕの最大数は何ですか。
A. 6
B. 12
C. 16
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.10 ESXi 4.x のデフォルト? スワップパーテゖションのサ゗ズは、次のどれですか。
A. 544MB
B. 4GB
C. 600MB
D. 1.6GB
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: VCPC510

Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vCloud)

Questions et réponses: 250 Q&As

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NO.1 On which two vSphere elements can traffic shaping be configured? (Choose two.)
A. On a vSphere Distributed Switch dvPort for inbound and/or outbound traffic
B. On a vSphere Distributed Switch for inbound and/or outbound traffic
C. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound traffic
D. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound and outbound traffic
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which three features are only available when using a vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose
three.)
A. Port Mirroring
B. PVLAN tagging
C. Egress Traffic Shaping
D. Ingress Traffic Shaping
E. 802.1q VLAN Tagging
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using
over
90% of its available resources for five minutes or longer.
Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger without running a
script? (Choose three.)
A. Power on a VM
B. Reboot Guest on VM
C. Increase Virtual Machine Memory
D. Migrate a VM
E. Increase Virtual Machine CPU Shares
Answer: A,B,D

VMware   VCPC510   VCPC510 examen   VCPC510 examen

NO.4 As a System Administrator you can disable an Organization vDC. Disabling will have which of
the
following effects? (Choose two)
A. vApps in the Org vDC that are not running cannot be powered on.
B. All vApps in the Org vDC will be shutdown.
C. Users will not be able to create or start additional vApps in that Org vDC.
D. The running vApps in the Org vDC will have their storage lease reset.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which two resources must be in place prior to creating a new Provider vDC? (Choose two.)
A. vCloud External Network
B. vCenter Datastore
C. vCenter Resource Pool
D. vShield Protection Group
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 In a large organization, a user has 10 VMs deployed in vCloud Director, backed by a
Pay-As-You-
Go allocation model. The user needs to determine the charges being incurred for resource usage.
Which report type does the user need?
A. Showback Report
B. Usage Report
C. Cost Comparison Report
D. Cost Report
Answer: D

VMware   VCPC510   VCPC510 examen

NO.7 Which two components are required for a vCloud infrastructure installation? (Choose two.)
A. AMQP Broker
B. vCloud Connector
C. vShield Manager
D. Oracle/MS SQL database
Answer: C,D

VMware   certification VCPC510   VCPC510

NO.8 An administrator attempts to delete the network named Internet but receives an error.
What is a possible reason for the error?
A. The network named Internet is backed by a port group on a vSphere Standard Switch.
B. The vShield Edge appliance on the external network is powered off.
C. The administrator needs to be an Organization Administrator.
D. The network is still in use by an Organization.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: TB0-111

Nom d'Examen: Tibco (TIBCO Rendezvous 8 Exam)

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two situations can trigger the presentation of a SCHEDULER.OVERFLOW advisory? (Choose
two.)
A. Scheduler has set a task backlog limit.
B. Scheduler has not set a task backlog limit.
C. Scheduler is accepting new tasks, but discarding old ones on a FIFO basis.
D. The Scheduler backlog limit has been reached and new tasks are being discarded.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 With TIBCO Rendezvous messaging, which networking protocol does the client application use to
connect to the Rendezvous daemon (RVD)?
A. SSL
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three activities can be configured through the Rendezvous routing daemon (RVRD) HTTP
interface to be routinely output to the RVRD log file? (Choose three.)
A. Subject Data: to log all messages that this routing daemon forwards to its neighbors or receives from
its neighbors
B. Connections: to log connection activity whenever this routing daemon establishes or closes a
connection to a neighbor
C. Client: to log RVRD local client connection activity whenever a client application establishes or closes a
connection to the routing daemon
D. Subject interest: to log all subscription requests (notification of listening) that this routing daemon
sends to its neighbors or receives from its neighbors
E. Remote: to log RVRD remote client connection activity whenever a remote client application
establishes or closes a connection to the routing daemon
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Which advisory message does a Rendezvous fault-tolerant member present when other group
members use parameters that do not match its corresponding parameters?
A. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.PARAM_MISMATCH.group
B. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.PARAM_COLLISION.group
C. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.MEMBER_UNAVAILABLE.group
D. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.MEMBER_PARAM_MISMATCH.group
Answer: A

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NO.5 In TIBCO Rendezvous, a control channel is used for communication between _____.
A. Rendezvous daemons and client processes
B. Rendezvous daemons and browser interface
C. Rendezvous managed daemons and Rendezvous non-managed daemons
D. Rendezvous Daemon Manager (RVDM) and Rendezvous managed daemons
Answer: D

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NO.6 Queue dispatch calls remove the event at the head of a queue, and run its callback function. What is
the correct behavior for the three types of dispatch calls in situations where the queue is empty? (Choose
three.)
A. Ordinary dispatch blocks indefinitely, until the queue contains an event.
B. Polling dispatch does not block. If the queue is empty, it returns immediately.
C. Timed dispatch does not block for an event, but keeps on polling periodically.
D. Ordinary dispatch blocks for the timeout value, until the queue contains an event.
E. Polling dispatch blocks waiting for an event. If the queue is empty, it returns immediately.
F. Timed dispatch blocks waiting for an event, but returns without dispatching anything if a waiting time
limit is exceeded.
Answer: A,B,F

Tibco examen   certification TB0-111   certification TB0-111

NO.7 Which statement is correct about the _RV.INFO.RVCM.DELIVERY.CONFIRM.subject advisory?
A. A listener sends this advisory to confirm receipt of a certified message.
B. The sender presents this advisory after deleting the message from its ledger.
C. A sender presents this advisory whenever a registered listener confirms receipt of a certified message.
D. A sender presents this advisory when all registered listeners have either confirmed delivery of a
certified message, or canceled interest in receiving it.
Answer: B

Tibco   TB0-111   TB0-111

NO.8 Company A will deploy their Rendezvous applications to their production environment. They need to
run five RVDs, two RVRDs, one RVA, and one RVTRACE utility on one particular host. How many ticket
files (tibrv.tkt) are needed on the host?
A. one
B. seven
C. eight
D. nine
E. four
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statement is correct about Rendezvous fault-tolerant groups (RVFTs)?
A. RVFT is an election protocol that tells an application when it is active or inactive.
B. RVFT can only be utilized for message producers, not for message consumers.
C. For reliable consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically disables
subscriptions if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.
D. For certified consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically
confirms messages if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.
E. For certified consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically cancels the
certified agreement if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.
Answer: A

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NO.10 tibrvlistenis started with the following settings: -network ";224.2.2.2;224.6.6.6" "mytest" tibrvsend is
started with the following settings: -network ";224.6.6.6;224.2.2.2" "mytest". "message #1" What is the
expected result?
A. The listener receives "message #1" only when run on a different host than the sender.
B. The listener does not receive "message #1" when run on a different host than the sender.
C. The listener will receive the message only if both the listener and sender run on the same host.
D. The listener will receive the message only if both the listener and sender connect remotely to the same
daemon.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two statement are correct about certified delivery confirmation? (Choose two.)
A. Explicit confirmation of message delivery by the listening program is the default behavior.
B. When confirmation reaches the certified sender, the transport presents a DELIVERY.CONFIRM
advisory.
C. Automatic confirmation of message delivery upon return from the callback function is the default
behavior.
D. When confirmation reaches the certified listener, the transport presents a
DELIVERY.CONFIRM advisory.
E. When confirmation reaches the certified sender, the transport presents a
DELIVERY.COMPLETE advisory.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 For Rendezvous secure daemon (RVSD), subject access can be restricted to specific users. Where on
the RVSD browser interface is this feature configured?
A. on the User's page
B. on the Subject Access page
C. on the Limiting Access page
D. on the Authorize Subjects page
Answer: C

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NO.13 Where is the Rendezvous license ticket file located?
A. It can be in any directory in theclasspath.
B. It can be in any directory in the execution path.
C. It must be in the Rendezvous Home/lib directory.
D. It must be in the Rendezvous Home/bin directory.
Answer: A

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NO.14 A publisher application uses a transport with UDP port number 8600 and multicast group 239.1.1.1.
Which two sets of transport parameters enable a subscriber application to receive messages from the
publisher? (Choose two.)
A. Service 6800, Network ";239.1.1.0;239.1.1.1"
B. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.0;239.1.1.1"
C. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.1,239.1.1.0"
D. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.0,239.1.1.1;239.1.1.1"
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 Which two statements are correct about fault-tolerant groups? (Choose two.)
A. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight.
B. Fault-tolerant groups implement a K of N active strategy (K member of a group is active while N-K
members are passive).
C. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight, which must be
a unique value within the fault-tolerant group.
D. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight. Members with
equal weight are ranked by the time they joined the fault-tolerant group.
E. The members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight. Members
with equal weight are ranked by non-deterministic means opaque to programs.
Answer: B,E

Tibco   TB0-111   TB0-111

NO.16 The following is the declaration of secure daemon in Rendezvous C API: tibrv_status
tibrvSecureDaemon_SetUserCertWithKey( const char* userCertWithKey, const char* password);
Which two statements are correct about this function? (Choose two.)
A. The password parameter is used to decrypt the private key.
B. The password parameter is used for the password for this user.
C. TheuserCertWithKey parameter is used to register user certificate with a private key. The text of this
certificate must be in PEM encoding.
D. TheuserCertWithKey parameter is used to register user certificate with a private key. The text of this
certificate may be in PEM or PK12 encoding.
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 When programming a TIBCO Rendezvous fault-tolerant application, it is a documented best practice to
associate fault-tolerant member events with _____.
A. a low-priority queue
B. a high-priority queue
C. a system event queue
D. the default event queue
Answer: B

Tibco   certification TB0-111   certification TB0-111   TB0-111   TB0-111

NO.18 You plan to test a network to ensure that it meets the following requirements: 100,000 point-topoint
messages to be published by a single source in batch mode with ten messages per batch with an interval
gap of 10 milliseconds. What is the correct rvperfm command to start a test run?
A. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -inbox -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch 10
B. rvperfm -service 7500 -daemon 7500 -inbox -messages 100000 -interval 0.01 -batch 10
C. rvperfm -service 7500 -daemon 7500 -subject PTP -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch 10
D. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -subject _INBOX -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch
E. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -subject _PTP -messages 100000 -interval 0.01 -batch 10
Answer: B

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
Which menu option shown in the exhibit is used for setting the default service and network for
Rendezvous secure daemons (RVSDs)?
A. Users
B. Services
C. XML Configuration
D. Daemon Parameters
E. Networks and Services
Answer: D

Tibco   TB0-111   TB0-111   TB0-111

NO.20 Your back-end processing supports multi-threading and you plan to leverage this capability in the
context of a Rendezvous distributed queue (RVCMQ) subscriber by running five concurrent threads.
Which statement is correct?
A. RVCMQ scales by multiple program instances (horizontally), not by multi-threading (vertically).
B. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as specified by the scheduler
configuration (the scheduler tasks parameter must be set to 5 or greater).
C. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as specified by the worker tasks
parameter (the worker tasks parameter of each queue member must be equal to or greater than 5).
D. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as it dispatches (nothing needs to be
done from a RVCMQ standpoint as it is a matter of the multi-threaded message dispatching).
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: TB0-116

Nom d'Examen: Tibco (TIBCO Enterprise Message Service 6 Exam)

Questions et réponses: 134 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about access control and bridges? (Choose two.)
A. A bridge automatically has permission to send to its target destination(s).
B. Message producers must have access to a destination to send messages to that destination.
C. ACLs must be added to thebridges.conf file if the access control is enabled for any bridged destination.
D. A message producer sending messages to a bridged destination must also have access to the target
destination(s) defined on the bridge.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 The mismatched bandwidth between a message producer and consumer can be solved by setting
which property in the TIBCO EMS configuration?
A. multicast
B. flow_control
C. msg_swapping
D. max_msg_memory
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two valid queue properties? (Choose two.)
A. export
B. channel
C. exclusive
D. maxRedelivery
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Server R defines a global queue named Q1. R is also the owner of Q1. Servers P and S define routed
queues Q1@R. The servers P, R, and S are connected by routes. Which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. When a message is sent from server P to queue Q1, P forwards the message to the home queue on
server R.
B. Messages are available to local and remote consumers even before the message reaches the home
queue.
C. If Server P or the route connection from P to R fails, a consumer application of server P will not be able
to receive messages from Q1 until the servers resume communication.
D. When a message is sent from server S to Q1 and the route is not connected, the message is not
delivered, and the client application receives the exception DESTINATION_NOT_AVAILABLE.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which operations ensure that the user usr gets permission to only subscribe to a topic tpc and browse
the queue que?
A. add memberusr grp
grant queue que grp browse
grant topic tpc usr subscribe
B. add membergrp usr
grant queue que usr browse
grant topic tpc grp subscribe
C. add memberusr grp
grant queue que usr browse
grant topic tpc usr subscribe
D. add membergrp usr
grant queue que usr browse
grant topic tpc grp subscribe,publish
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about JMS local transactions? (Choose two.)
A. Closing a transacted session commits its transaction.
B. Session interface provides commit and rollback methods.
C. Consumed messages are acknowledged uponsession.commit.
D. Consumed messages are recovered and redelivered uponsession.commit.
Answer: B,C

Tibco   certification TB0-116   TB0-116   TB0-116 examen   TB0-116

NO.7 Which two statements are true about a fault-tolerant configuration of TIBCO EMS where the primary
server heartbeat has stopped? (Choose two.)
A. The backup server waits for its activation interval.
B. The backup server tries to retrieve the information from shared storage.
C. The backup server assumes control if theft_weight parameter is equal to 1.
D. Ifft_activation = ft_heartbeat x 5, the backup server becomes the primary server.
E. Theserver_timeout_server_connection parameter is used by the backup server before
attempting a switchover.
Answer: A,B

certification Tibco   TB0-116 examen   TB0-116

NO.8 Which three message delivery modes are valid for TIBCO EMS? (Choose three.)
A. PERSISTANT
B. NON_PERSISTENT
C. RELIABLE_DELIVERY
D. CERTIFIED_DELIVERY
Answer: A,B,D

certification Tibco   TB0-116   TB0-116   TB0-116

NO.9 A TIBCO EMS Server has the following configuration in the stores.conf and queues.conf
files:stores.conf
[filestore-1] type=file file=filestore1.db mode=async
[filestore-2] type=file file=filestore2.db mode=sync queues.conf > store=filestore-1 queue1
store=filestore-2 Message swapping is enabled.
What happens when NON_PERSISTENT messages are published on queue1?
A. All the published messages are stored in filestore-2.
B. All the published messages are stored in filestore-1.
C. Messages are moved to filestore-1 when the server reaches certain memory limits.
D. Messages are moved to filestore-2 when the server reaches certain memory limits.
Answer: D

certification Tibco   TB0-116   TB0-116   TB0-116 examen

NO.10 The following diagram illustrates an enterprise with one-hop zones connecting all the servers in each of
several cities in a fully-connected graph. Zone TK connects all the servers in Tokyo; zone NY connects all
the servers in New York; zone PA connects all the servers in Paris. In addition, the multi-hop zone WO
connects one server in each city. Which three statements are true when a client of server TK3 produces a
message? (Choose three.)
A. When the message reaches PA1, it crosses into zone PA.
B. When the message reaches TK1, it will cross into zone PA.
C. TK1 forwards the message to NY1, which in turn forwards it to PA1.
D. The message will travel one hop to each of the other Tokyo servers.
Answer: A,C,D

Tibco   TB0-116   TB0-116   TB0-116

NO.11 Given the configuration in the acl.conf file: TOPIC=topic.sample1 USER=Bob PERM=subscribe
TOPIC=topic.* Group=engineering PERM=publish,subscribe Which statement is true if Bob is a member
of the engineering group?
A. Bob can only subscribe to topic.sample1.
B. Bob can publish and subscribe to only topic.sample1.
C. Bob can publish and subscribe to both topic.sample1 and topic.sample2.
D. Bob can publish to only topic.sample2 but can subscribe to both topic.sample1 and
topic.sample2.
E. Bob can publish to only topic.sample1 but can subscribe to both topic.sample1 and
topic.sample2.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two mappings of JMS header fields to TIBCO Rendezvous data types are correct? (Choose
two.)
A. JMSType to TIBRVMSG_U8
B. JMSTimestamp to TIBRVMSG_U64
C. JMSDeliveryMode to TIBRVMSG_U8
D. JMSRedelivered to TIBRVMSG_STRING
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 A connection factory is configured as follows: url=tcp://A:7222,tcp://B:7222
connect_attempt_count=2 reconnect_attempt_count=4 Host A is not available. After the client connects to
host B, host B crashes and remains down. How many more times will the client try to connect with host A?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
E. 6
F. 8
Answer: D

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NO.14 What are two valid TIBCO EMS Administrator Tool commands? (Choose two.)
A. set server ft=enabled
B. set server routing=enabled
C. set server authorization=enabled
D. set serverdetailed_statistics=NONE
Answer: C,D

certification Tibco   TB0-116 examen   TB0-116

NO.15 What are two allowed connection factory types with TIBCO EMS?
A. both
B. xaboth
C. generic
D. xageneric
Answer: C,D

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NO.16 Given the following set of values: ?sess is a Session object ?dest is a Destination object ?nolocal is a
boolean variable What is the correct way to create a message consumer with a selector?
A. String selector = "JMSCorrelationID=3";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest,selector,nolocal);
B. String selector = "JMSCorrelationID='3'";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest,selector,nolocal);
C. String selector = "JMSCorrelationID='3'";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest, nolocal, selector);
D. String selector = " 'JMSCorrelationID'='3'";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest, selector, nolocal);
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which three statements are true about using Third-Party JNDI Naming/Directory Services with TIBCO
EMS? (Choose three.)
A. Destinations cannot be retrieved from third-party naming or directory services.
B. To use a third-party directory service, you must have a JNDI provider for that specific type of service.
C. For third-party services, the only prerequisite is that the objects must have previously been stored
there.
D. EMS supports the storage and retrieval ofConnectionFactories in third-party naming or directory
services.
E. The objects physically stored by EMS coming from a third-party naming/directory service are serialized
objects.
F. The synchronization of administered objects between the EMS Server and the foreign
naming/directory services is automatic.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.18 Which two sets of commands successfully create a queue connection factory called fact with the URL
pointing to localhost:7222 on the TIBCO EMS Server? (Choose two.)
A. create factory fact queue
addprop factory fact url=tcp://7222
setprop factory fact url
B. create factory fact queueurl=tcp://7222
C. create factory queue fact
setprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost7222
D. create factory fact queue
addprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost:7222
E. create factory fact queue
addprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost:7222
setprop factory fact url
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 What action is taken when the command purge all queues foo.* is sent on the TIBCO EMS
Administrator Tool?
A. All messages in all queues are deleted.
B. All messages present in the queue called foo.* are deleted.
C. All user-created queues whose names match the pattern foo.* are deleted.
D. All messages present in all the queues whose names matched the pattern foo.* are deleted.
Answer: D

Tibco   certification TB0-116   TB0-116

NO.20 A TIBCO EMS Server (mystore) has the following configuration in the stores.conf and queues.conf
files: stores.conf [mystore] type=file file=mystore.db mode=sync [mystore] type=dbstore
dbstore_driver_url=jdbc:sqlserver://sqlsrv_1:3415;databaseName=sysmeta
dbstore_driver_username=admin dbstore_driver_password=admin123 queues.conf queue1
store=mystore Which statement is true when PERSISTENT messages are published to queue1?
A. The server decides at runtime which store to use.
B. The server picks themystore of file type because it was configured first.
C. The server fails to start because there are two stores configured with the same name.
D. The server picks themystore of database type because that overrides the previously configured
filestore.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: OG0-091

Nom d'Examen: The Open Group (TOGAF 9 Part 1)

Questions et réponses: 234 Q&As

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NO.1 What level of the Architecture Landscape provides a long-term summary view of the entire enterprise?
A. Capability Architecture
B. Operational Architecture
C. Segment Architecture
D. Strategic Architecture
E. Tactical Architecture
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is
an example and not mandatory?
A. To show the evolution of deliverables
B. To permit adaptation as required
C. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework
D. To support change management
Answer: B

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NO.3 According to TOGAF, where should architecture governance artifacts be stored?
A. In the Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model
B. In the Standards Information Base
C. In the Foundation Architecture
D. In the Architecture Repository
Answer: D

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NO.4 Complete the sentence. To promote effective architectural activity within the enterprise, TOGAF 9
recommends the establishment of a(n) _____
A. Enterprise Architecture Capability
B. IT Governing Board
C. Program Management Office
D. Quality Assurance department
E. Service Management department
Answer: A

The Open Group   certification OG0-091   OG0-091 examen   OG0-091

NO.5 Which section of the TOGAF document describes the processes, skills and roles to establish and
operate an architecture function within an enterprise?
A. Part II: Architecture Development Method
B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques
C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework
D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models
E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework
Answer: E

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NO.6 Complete the sentence. TOGAF 9 Part III provides techniques, such as developing principles and gap
analysis, to support tasks within the ______
A. Architecture Capability Framework
B. Architecture Continuum
C. Architecture Development Method
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Architecture Repository
Answer: C

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NO.7 According to TOGAF, Which one of the following best describes an enterprise architecture?
A. An architecture of a commercial organization
B. An architecture that consists of more than one subsidiary company
C. An architecture that crosses multiple systems, and multiple functional groups within the enterprise
D. The highest level of architecture that can be achieved in a given organization
Answer: C

The Open Group   OG0-091   OG0-091 examen   OG0-091

NO.8 Which phase of the ADM is used to finalize a set of transition architectures that will support
implementation?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true.?
A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture
B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF
D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9
Answer: A

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NO.10 According to TOGAF, the recommended dimensions used to define the scope of an architecture
include all the following, except:
A. Architecture Domains
B. Enterprise Focus
C. Level of Detail
D. Subject Matter
E. Time Period
Answer: D

The Open Group examen   certification OG0-091   OG0-091   OG0-091

NO.11 In TOGAF, What is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E

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NO.12 Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?
A. A common vocabulary
B. A list of recommended standards
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks
D. A set of structuresWhichcan be used to develop a broad range of architectures
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering
Answer: E

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NO.13 According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category is for resources NOT
referenced by content within the other categories?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Extension
C. TOGAF Mandatory
D. TOGAF Recommended
E. TOGAF Supporting
Answer: E

The Open Group   OG0-091 examen   OG0-091

NO.14 Which one of the following best describes the implications of TOGAF being a generic framework?
A. The organization must utilize an architecture tool in order to tailor the templates for use
B. It must be adapted to satisfy organization specific requirements
C. It can be utilized by most enterprises without further customization
D. It can only be used for enterprise level architecture projects E. It should only be employed under the
supervision of highly trained consultants
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is the architecture domain that describes the logical software and hardware
capabilities?
A. Application Architecture
B. Business Architecture
C. Data Architecture
D. Technology Architecture
Answer: D

The Open Group   certification OG0-091   certification OG0-091   OG0-091

NO.16 What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform?
A. Standards Information Base
B. Enterprise Continuum
C. Governance Log
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Reference Library
Answer: A

The Open Group   OG0-091   OG0-091   OG0-091 examen   OG0-091 examen   OG0-091

NO.17 Which one of the following describes classification methods for architecture and solution artifacts
within the Architecture Repository?
A. Architecture Landscape
B. Architecture Vision
C. Enterprise Continuum
D. Governance Log
E. Standards Information Base
Answer: C

The Open Group   OG0-091   OG0-091   OG0-091   OG0-091

NO.18 Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference
Library, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library, Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
Answer: D

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NO.19 According to TOGAF, Which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted
subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision
Answer: A

The Open Group   certification OG0-091   OG0-091   OG0-091

NO.20 According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category describes a technique that is
referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated?
A. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
B. TOGAF Recommended
C. TOGAF Supporting
D. TOGAF Extension
Answer: B

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