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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-731

Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix Netsoaler 8.0: Administration Exam)

Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 The auditing and security policy of a company requires that all transactions that can be logged must be
logged. Which option must an administrator configure a syslog server for to meet this requirement?
A. Device counters
B. System counters
C. HTTP transactions
D. Audited commands
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator should configure Link Aggregation on a NetScaler system when __________.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. redundancy on a half duplex operation is required
B. redundancy on an operation across multiple data rates is required
C. network connections between LAN switches and network servers require more than 1Gb/sec
D. network connections between LAN switches and network servers require more than 8 Gb/sec
Answer: C

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NO.3 A multinational company with two server farms wants to set-up a NetScaler system with High
Availability as shown in the attached exhibit without using content switching.
How many virtual IP addresses will the administrator need for the environment set up to work?
Click the Exhibit button to view the environment.
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B

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NO.4 What must an administrator configure the NetScaler log to record in order to know when someone has
altered the system configurations?
A. Access logs
B. Event messages
C. System counters
D. Audited commands
Answer: D

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NO.5 What does an administrator need to configure in order for a NetScaler system to advertise virtual IP
addresses, directly connected routes and static routes on the upstream routers?
A. Static Routes
B. Link Load Balancing
C. Route Health Injection
D. Front-end Health Check
Answer: C

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NO.6 A company is planning on implementing NetScaler systems in High Availability pairs.
Which entry in the NS.CONF file of the secondary system needs to be unique from those of the primary
system?
A. VMAC
B. Node ID
C. MIP address
D. NSIP address
Answer: D

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NO.7 Scenario: An administrator is planning on deploying a NetScaler system into a network environment
using SNMP. The administrator plans on enabling the 11 SNMP traps relating to request and response
rates.
Which two objects must the administrator configure in order for the SNMP traps to send alerts? (Choose
two.)
A. SNMP destination
B. Source IP address
C. Threshold levels for the traps
D. Additional IP addresses on which the SNMP service can respond to SNMP queries
Answer: AC

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NO.8 Scenario: An administrator is planning to deploy NetScaler systems in an environment with multiple IP
subnets, one of which is non-routable. The company is an online retailer and needs outbound
connections from the non-routable subnet in order to verify credit cards.
What will an administrator need to configure to meet the company's requirements?
A. SIP
B. USIP
C. RNAT
D. USNIP
E. Layer 2 mode
Answer: C

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NO.9 How many untagged VLANs can an administrator configure on a single interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 16
D. 256
E. 4,096
Answer: A

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NO.10 Scenario: A company has distributed Internet sites and installations are spread across multiple
network locations and requires load balancing to be based on the client's proximity to the site, with the
least amount of configuration.
What must the administrator do to ensure GSLB uses the appropriate load balancing method?
A. Enable and configure Dynamic Proximity based Global Server Load Balancing.
B. Enable Dynamic Network Proximity based on the RTT of the client accessing the load balancing virtual
server.
C. Enable DNS view based Static Proximity through an Advanced expression to extract the client IP and
compare it to the subnet of the site.
D. Enable Proximity based Global Server Load Balancing and use the location's database to enter the
MAC address of all the clients and the corresponding site to which they should make the connection.
Answer: A

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NO.11 A large e-commerce company is planning on integrating NetScaler systems into their network
environment. The company requires that the original client IP addresses be recorded in the web server
logs.
Which two features on the NetScaler could accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. USIP
B. RNAT
C. USNIP
D. Edge mode
E. Client IP insertion
Answer: AE

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NO.12 Which type of VLAN is used when an administrator leaves the NetScaler system interfaces on the
default VLAN?
A. Tagged
B. Port-based
C. MAC-based
D. Protocol-based
Answer: B

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NO.13 Scenario: A company based in Beijing was unable to reach their data center for more than a week due
to a nearby earthquake. The company now has Distributed Data Centers in multiple regions, including a
disaster recovery center, to increase redundancy. The company wants their new NetScaler systems to
load balance these
centers.
Which NetScaler feature will allow load balancing across these centers only for redundancy?
A. Global Server Load Balancing to make load balancing decisions between the two sites
B. TCP-based content switching to make a decision between the load balance virtual servers
C. Proximity-based Global Server Load Balancing based on the RTT of client requests to virtual servers
D. SNMP load monitor bound to each location and bound to the default NetScaler metric table and with
the appropriate SNMP OIDs to load balance the different locations
Answer: A

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NO.14 Scenario: A company is deploying a NetScaler system in a network environment with some subnets
open to the public Internet and one non-routable subnet. The administrator plans on enabling
Use-Subnet-IP mode and disabling Use-Source-IP mode.
Which two IP addresses can the administrator set as source IP addresses for connections to back-end
servers?
(Choose two.)
A. VIP
B. MIP
C. SNIP
D. NSIP
Answer: BC

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NO.15 An administrator plans to configure a NetScaler system to resolve DNS queries using an external DNS
server with an IP address of 10.10.10.1.
Which command could the administrator use to configure this?
A. add nameserver DNS1 10.10.10.1
B. add lb vserver DNS1 dns 10.10.10.1
C. add server DNS1 10.10.10.1 -external
D. add nameserver DNS1 dns 10.10.10.1 -local
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which two modes could a NetScaler system be deployed in if all traffic must pass through the
NetScaler? (Choose two.)
A. HA inline
B. HA one-arm
C. Stand-alone inline
D. Stand-alone one-arm
Answer: AC

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NO.17 An SNMP manager attempted to poll for an OID but received the error message: "response timeout."
Which two options could the administrator have misconfigured for SNMPv2 to cause this error message?
(Choose two.)
A. SNMP user
B. SNMP group
C. SNMP manager
D. SNMP community
Answer: CD

Citrix   1Y0-731   1Y0-731

NO.18 Which option must an administrator enable on a NetScaler system to route packets that are not
destined for the NetScaler?
A. L2 mode
B. L3 mode
C. Static route advertisement
D. Dynamic route advertisement
Answer: B

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NO.19 Scenario: An administrator introduced two new servers into a server farm that can handle more traffic
than the older servers. The current load balancing method set for the virtual server managing the traffic
for this group of servers is Least Connections. The administrator wants to maintain the load balancing
method but also wants to use the new servers to improve performance by having them take more of the
traffic than the older servers.
Which advanced option must the administrator configure to achieve this?
A. Spillover
B. Max Client
C. Backup vserver
D. Service Weights
E. Global Setting Override
Answer: D

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NO.20 Scenario: An administrator is configuring monitoring for web servers in the environment that often
results in services being marked as DOWN because of slow back-end servers. The administrator wants to
configure the virtual server and services so that existing connections stay open when a service is marked
down but not when a virtual server is marked DOWN.
How must the administrator configure the service and virtual server to reflect this dependency?
A. set lb vserver lbv1 -downStateFlush DISABLED
set service svc1 -downStateFlush ENABLED
B. set lb vserver lbv1 -downStateFlush ENABLED
set service svc1 -downStateFlush ENABLED
C. set lb vserver lbv1 -downStateFlush DISABLED
set service svc1 -downStateFlush DISABLED
D. set lb vserver lbv1 -downStateFlush ENABLED
set service svc 1 -downStateFlush DISABLED
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-992

Nom d'Examen: Citrix (MetaFrame Presentation Server withFeature Release 3 Deployment and Support CCEAQandA)

Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 .An administrator is tasked with deploying 10 MetaFrame XP Presentation Servers at the corporate
office site. Based on the analysis and design performed by the IT consulting firm, he has decided to use
an unattended installation to install his MetaFrame XP Presentation Servers. Which three options are
sections that require answers during the configuration of the answer file? (Choose three.)
A. [Citrix IMA Settings]
B. [Citrix XML Service]
C. [Shadowing Restrictions]
D. [Indirect Connection Settings]
E. [Program Neighborhood Settings]
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 .Which three sections are included during the update of an answer file of a MetaFrame XP
Presentation Server? (Choose three.)
A. [MSDE Settings]
B. [Citrix XML Service]
C. [Feature Relcase 3]
D. [MetaFrame License Agreement]
E. [Published Application]
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 .The Enable Sound field in the ICA client is not supported with session connected to a MetaFrame for
UNIX serve.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 .Citrix licenses require an activation code.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is installed as part of the ICA client software?
A. Citrix Secure ICA
B. Citrix Remote Client Manager
C. Citrix Installation Manager
D. Citrix Remote Application Manager
Answer: D

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NO.6 .Which of the following does the ICA Passthrough not support?
A. COM port mapping
B. Clipboard mapping
C. Client drive mapping
D. Printer queue mapping
Answer: A

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NO.7 .Which command allows you to connect to a disconnected ICA session?
A. ctxconnect
B. ctxqserver
C. ctxinstall
D. ctxqclient
Answer: A

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NO.8 .The MetaFrame for UNIX server allows asyne connections.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.9 .Citrix Program Neighborhood works with the ICA Client for UNIX.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following describes the ReadyConnect client?
A. The ready Connect client creates the installation disks that are reconfigured with servers telephone
number, server names and connection options.
B. The ReadyConnect client create the installation disks that are reconfigured with the server's telephone
number, network addresses and connection options.
C. The ReadyConnect client create the installation disks that are reconfigured with the server's telephone
number, network address, server name and connection options.
D. The ReadyConnect client create the installation disks that are reconfigured with the server's telephone
number, network addresses, server names, connection options and Secure ICA client information.
Answer: C

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NO.11 .Which command is used to add serial numbers to he license store?
A. clicense add
B. ctxlicense add
C. xplicense install
D. xpinstall license
Answer: A

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NO.12 .The ICA Client for 16-bit DOS works with version 3.3 or greater and supports DOS full screen mode.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.13 .How are pooled licenses distributed?
A. Pooled licenses are distributed based on the client versions.
B. Pooled licenses are distributed based on the number of logons.
C. Pooled licenses are distributed based on the inherit pool locense command on the MetaFrame server.
D. Pooled licenses are distributed based on the number of physical devices accessing resources on the
subnet.
Answer: D

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NO.14 .What method for conducting scalability test iterations provides the most valid results?
A. 1. Monitor server for 10 minutes with no users
2. Add users until the server fails
B. 1. Monitor sever for 10 minutes with no users
2. Add a single user
3. Wait until the login process is complete
4. Repeat steps 2 and 3 until the server fails
C. 1. Monitor server for 10 minutes with no users
2. Add 5 users
3. Wait 10 minutes
4. Repeat steps 2 and 3 until the server fails
D. 1. Monitor server for 10 minutes with no users.
2. Add a single user
3. Wait 10 minutes
4. Repeat step 2 and 3 until the server fails
Answer: C

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NO.15 .What is the primary objective for configuring SQL server replication of the data store?
A. Performance
B. Administration
C. Fault tolerance
D. Disaster recovery
Answer: A

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NO.16 .Using Transparent Static Port Mapping, which clients cannot access a subnet? (Choose two.)
A. Web
B. UNIX
C. Win 16
D. WIN 32
E. Macintosh
Answer: A,E

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NO.17 .When bitmap caching is used in a low-bandwidth network, what occurs? A. There is no effect on the
limited bandwidth connection.
B. Performance on the limited bandwidth network connection decrease.
C. Performance on the limited bandwidth network connection increases.
D. If the server is compressing data, the network connection decreases.
Answer: C

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NO.18 .The employees at Certpaper.com use computers with the following operating systems: Son Solaris
2.51, WIN 3.1 and DOS. MetaFrame is installed on all of the servers. You want to install the ICA client
software on all of the computers. Which ICA client software will you need?
A. UNIX, Win 16 and DOS.
B. DOS, Win 16 and Win 32.
C. Win16, Win32 and UNIX
D. Macintosh, Win32 and UNIX.
Answer: A

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NO.19 .Certpaper.com has just implemented a MetaFrame for UNIX server farm. The new VP of Operation is
taking a crash course in MetaFrame technology and asks. "What is the difference between a published
application and server connection?" which answer is correct?
A. Having a published application enables applications to run on any of the configured Citrix severs in the
server farm. A server connection can start an application or a server desktop on a specific server.
B. Having a published application means that the application will only run on a specified machine. A
server application means that it can run from any machine in the server farm.
C. There is no difference.
D. Published applications cannot be load balanced, but a server application can.
Answer: A

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NO.20 .MetaFrame for UNIX only supports the TCP\IP and IPX\SPX protocols.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-A08

Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Advanced Administration for Citrix XenApp 5.0 for Windows for Windows Server 2008)

Questions et réponses: 195 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Citrix service directly depends on the IMA service?
A. WMI
B. Licensing
C. XTE Server
D. Print Manager
Answer: A

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NO.2 Scenario: An administrator configured Citrix XenApp in an environment and used a SQL Server data
store. The SQL server data store database has been moved to another SQL server.
Which two steps must be performed on the Citrix XenApp servers to complete the relocation of the data
store? (Choose two.)
A. Run the CHFARM command
B. Create a new DSN file that points to the relocated database
C. Run the DSMAINT CONFIG command to change the IMA service configuration on all servers in the
farm
D. Run the DSMAINT MIGRATE command to change the IMA service configuration on all servers in the
farm
Answer: BC

Citrix   1Y0-A08 examen   1Y0-A08

NO.3 Scenario: A Citrix XenApp farm consist of one data center that hosts several dozen Citrix XenApp
servers. An administrator in the farm is creating a disaster recovery plan and has secured data center
space in Timbuktu. After provisioning a dozen servers to that location, the administrator begins
configuring zone preference and failover so that, if necessary, all users can access applications from the
disaster site.
Once properly configured, users can leverage the latest __________ when accessing the farm through a
_________ . (Choose the three correct options to complete the sentence.)
A. Client for Java; XenApp Web site
B. Client for Linux; XenApp Web site
C. Plugin for Hosted Apps; XenApp Services site
D. Windows CE-based client; custom ICA connection
E. XenApp Plugin for Hosted Apps; Program neighbourhood interface
Answer: ACE

Citrix   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08

NO.4 Scenario: Sessions are NOT being directed to a new Citrix XenApp server in a farm. The
administrator investigates further and notices that this server is reporting a load of 20000.
This indicates that the server _________ . (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. is NOT licensed properly
B. processor is running at 100%
C. does NOT have a load evaluator assigned
D. has failed a Health Monitoring and Recovery test
Answer: A

Citrix   1Y0-A08 examen   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08

NO.5 Scenario: Since a recent server consolidation project which reduced the number of servers in the farm,
users cannot access published applications on the Web Interface site.The Citrix administrators can
access the Citrix XenApp servers through remote desktop connections but cannot discover the farm from
the Access Management Console.
What could be preventing the Access Management Console from discovering the farm?
A. Citrix XenApp servers were NOT rebooted
B. The SQL database for the XenApp data store was moved
C. The users do NOT have the latest XenApp Plugin installed
D. Servers that were hosting applications were removed from the farm
Answer: A

Citrix   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08 examen   1Y0-A08 examen

NO.6 Scenario: A company has just recovered from a major power failure. The administrator at the company
currently leverages a single Citrix XenApp server farm with two sites for application delivery. The
administrator set up a zone preference and failover policy which successfully directed users to the
secondary site during the power failure.
How can the administrator switch the users back to the primary site now that it is recovered?
A. Reassign the policy filters to a different user group
B. Instruct users to log off their sessions and log on again
C. Configure a custom load evaluator by client IP address and assign it to the primary site servers
D. Edit the existing zone preference and failover policy and make the secondary site the Primary site
E. Configure a new zone preference and failover policy and assign the secondary site as Backup site 1
Answer: B

Citrix examen   1Y0-A08 examen   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08 examen

NO.7 Which two commands can an administrator use to check for disconnected ICA sessions? (Choose two)
A. QWINSTA
B. QFARM /APP
C. QFARM /DISC
D. QFARM /LOAD
E. QUERY LOGON
Answer: AC

Citrix examen   certification 1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08 examen   1Y0-A08 examen

NO.8 Scenario: During testing, a new application crashes on Citrix XenApp servers.After investigating, the
administrator identifies that the application is NOT compatible with the virtual memory management
feature, which has been enabled.
How can the administrator prevent the application from being affected by the memory management
feature without disabling memory management for all applications?
A. Add the application to the .SFO file
B. Stream the application to the server
C. Add the application to the Exclude Application list
D. Remove the application from the memory management list in the registry
Answer: C

certification Citrix   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08   certification 1Y0-A08

NO.9 An administrator must configure streamed applications to work for some Windows-based laptop users
who may NOT be connected to the corporate network when working remotely.
Which two steps must the administrator perform in order to meet the needs of this environment?
(Choose two.)
A. Configure laptop users for offline access
B. Install the XenApp Web Plugin on each laptop
C. Configure the application profiles for offline access
D. Enable the published application for offline access
Answer: AD

Citrix   1Y0-A08 examen   1Y0-A08

NO.10 Scenario: Citrix administrators in a remote office are experiencing slow performance when using the
Access Management Console.The environment uses a Microsoft SQL 2005 data store, and there are 300
Citrix XenApp servers in the farm.
What could be the cause of the slow performance?
A. The IMA service is NOT started
B. Too many servers are in the farm
C. Zone preference and failover is NOT configured
D. Latency between the remote location and the data store server
Answer: B

Citrix   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08 examen   1Y0-A08 examen   1Y0-A08

NO.11 Scenario: Users are reporting that their printers are NOT auto-creating. The administrator investigates
and discovers that the Citrix Print Manager Service is NOT running. When attempting to start the service,
the administrator receives the error shown in the attached screenshot.
Click the Exhibit button to view the error message.
Which two actions could resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Recreate the Ctx_cpsvcuser account
B. Recreate the network Service account
C. Recreate the Ctx_streamingsvc account
D. Ensure the Ctx_cpsvcuser account has logon as service rights
E. Ensure the Network Service account has logon as service rights
F. Ensure the Ctx_streamingsvc account has logon as service rights
Answer: AD

certification Citrix   certification 1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08   certification 1Y0-A08

NO.12 Scenario: An administrator creates a new load evaluator in a Citrix XenApp farm. During routine
investigations the administrator discovers that one Citrix XenApp server is hosting nearly 50% more
sessions than any other Citrix XenApp server in the farm.
Which object can the administrator view to identify which load evaluators have been applied to each
server?
A. Log tab in the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool
B. Farm Properties in the Access Management Console
C. Server Properties in the Access Management Console
D. Contents tab in the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool
E. Usage reports tab in the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool
Answer: E

Citrix   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08

NO.13 Scenario: A Citrix XenApp server in a farm is heavily loaded; logon time has increased significantly.
The CPU resources are dominated by a particular application. A single user running that application is
affecting all the other users connected to the Citrix XenApp server.
How would the administrator resolve this issue?
A. Assign the Advanced Load Evaluator to all servers
B. Enable Fair sharing of CPU between sessions
on the entire farm
C. Create a new load evaluator to load manage the application by CPU utilization
D. Configure a special Health Monitoring and Recovery item to show when the CPU utilization is high
Answer: B

Citrix   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08 examen   1Y0-A08   certification 1Y0-A08

NO.14 Which two reasons would cause an administrator to exclude certain applications from Memory
Optimization before testing them? (Choose two.)
A. Some application components are digitally signed
B. The applications allow Windows to load the .DLL files it calls
C. The applications are memory-intensive when run in multiple sessions
D. The applications use Windows Rights Management to protect its .DLL files
E. The applications download additional components from the Internet during installation
Answer: AD

Citrix   certification 1Y0-A08   certification 1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08

NO.15 Scenario: The Citrix IMA service fails to start and the IMA_RESULTS_ACCESS_DENIED
error
message is presented. A SQL data store database is used in the environment. After several
troubleshooting steps, the administrator decides to run the CHFARM command.
Which two options are available when running the CHFARM command to resolve the IMA service error?
(Choose two.)
A. Create a new farm
B. Join an existing farm
C. Reconfigure the existing farm
D. Recreate the Local Host Cache
Answer: AB

Citrix   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08 examen   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08

NO.16 Scenario: An administrator has been assigned the task of creating and testing application streaming
profiles. The initial phase of the project will only involve streaming applications to the Citrix XenApp
servers.
According to Citrix best practice, the profiler system should be installed on a _________ and include
_________ . (Choose the correct pair of options to complete the sentence)
A. Windows XP; a XenApp plugin for testing streamed applications
B. Windows Vista workstation; a XenApp plugin for testing streamed applications
C. Windows server; Standard programs that are part of the company image, such as an antivirus program
D. Windows Vista workstation; Standard programs that are part of the company image, such as an
antivirus program
Answer: C

Citrix   certification 1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08 examen   1Y0-A08

NO.17 In which situation should the CPU Utilization Management/CPU Rebalancer
service be set to start
automatically?
A. Citrix XenApp runs on a single processor server
B. The Resource Manager tool is used to monitor CPU sharing
C. It is desirable to monitor CPU sharing using the Access Management Console
D. Multiple instances of a single-threaded application are running on the same CPU
Answer: D

Citrix examen   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08   certification 1Y0-A08

NO.18 What should an administrator do to troubleshoot an issue involving a single user who is unable to save
files to his or her local desktop when other users can save files to their local desktops?
A. Check the properties of the Citrix XenApp farm
B. Check the permissions on the local client drive
C. Check the properties of the published application
D. Check the permissions on the Citrix XenApp server drive
Answer: B

Citrix   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08

NO.19 With the least administrative effort, what could an administrator do to verify that the Citrix XenApp
servers in an environment have the same hotfix revision?
A. Run the CPATCH /L command and compare the hotfixes
B. Create a hotfix list and compare the servers using the Access Management Console
C. Use the Program and Features option in the Windows Control Panel and compare the hotfixes
D. Create a new hotfix list and compare the servers to the hotfix list in the XenApp Advanced
Configuration tool
Answer: B

Citrix   1Y0-A08   certification 1Y0-A08   1Y0-A08

NO.20 An administrator needs to allow client drive mapping using the ICAClient.ADM template. Drives A
through D should NOT be mapped Correct configuration into the dialogue box to disallow the mapping of
drives A through D.?
A. A-D
B. A:D
C. ABCD
D. A to D
Answer: C

Citrix examen   1Y0-A08 examen   1Y0-A08

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-A03

Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix XenDesktop 2.0 Enterprise Edition: Administration)

Questions et réponses: 62 Q&As

1Y0-A03 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/1Y0-A03.html

NO.1 An administrator should configure desktops as assigned when __________. (Choose the phrase that
correctly completes the sentence.)
A.XenApp will be used to deliver applications
B.users will be installing their own applications
C.the administrator needs to apply specific access policies to a few users
D.roaming profiles are used to allow end users to personalize their desktops
Answer:B

Citrix   1Y0-A03   1Y0-A03

NO.2 What is the role of the XenDesktop Setup Wizard?
A.To install XenDesktop on a server
B.To create provisioned virtual desktops
C.To organize virtual machines into groups
D.To add Microsoft Active Directory OUs for the Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer:B

Citrix   1Y0-A03   certification 1Y0-A03

NO.3 Scenario: An administrator is implementing a XenDesktop environment that will use XenApp to stream
the applications, Provisioning Server to stream the operating system and XenServer to host the virtual
machines. The administrator has completed the installation of the components including the vDisks and is
now beginning the creation of the virtual machines.Which template should the administrator create in this
scenario?
A.A template with two NICs
B.A local fixed disk template
C.A template without a hard drive
D.A TFTP chained bootstrap disk template
Answer:C

Citrix   1Y0-A03   certification 1Y0-A03   1Y0-A03

NO.4 Scenario: An administrator must determine the shared storage necessary for the virtual desktops in a
XenDesktop implementation. The XenDesktop environment will include Provisioning Server, XenApp and
XenServer. The administrator will be using XenDesktop to provision virtual desktops to office workers on
desktop appliances. Which two requirements should the administrator consider to determine the shared
storage necessary for the virtual desktops? (Choose two.)
A.Size of the XenApp farm
B.Location of caching for Provisioning Server
C.Number of standard images and private images
D.The number of Desktop Delivery Controllers in the farm
Answer:B C

certification Citrix   1Y0-A03   1Y0-A03   1Y0-A03   1Y0-A03

NO.5 On which component must an administrator run the Active Directory Configuration Wizard for a
XenDesktop implementation?
A.XenServer
B.Domain Controller
C.Provisioning Server
D.Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer:D

Citrix   1Y0-A03   certification 1Y0-A03   1Y0-A03 examen

NO.6 An administrator is implementing a XenDesktop environment that requires resource pools. When
creating the resource pools, the administrator should make sure that __________ and __________.
(Choose two phrases that correctly complete the sentence.)
A.the NICs across all members connect to the same networks
B.the NICs used for the servers in the resource pool are from the same vendor
C.the NICs used for the servers in the resource pool are in the same order on each system
D.the virtual machines hosted by the servers in the resource pool need the same number of NICs
Answer:A C

certification Citrix   1Y0-A03   certification 1Y0-A03   certification 1Y0-A03

NO.7 What are two roles of a DHCP server in a XenDesktop environment? (Choose two.)
A.Route PXE boot to the Provisioning Server vDisks
B.Make DHCP reservations for XenDesktop components
C.Assign IP addresses to new virtual desktops dynamically
D.Apply static IP addresses to virtual desktops as they are created
E.Replicate DCHP boot options from the Provisioning Server to the XenServer
Answer:A C

Citrix   1Y0-A03   certification 1Y0-A03   1Y0-A03   1Y0-A03

NO.8 Scenario: An administrator is about to install XenDesktop 2.0 Enterprise Edition for a large environment
with thousands of users. The administrator plans to install the Desktop Delivery Controller and the
components necessary to allow it to run correctly.According to best practices, what must the administrator
install prior to installing the Desktop Delivery Controller in this environment?
A.Web server
B.Desktop Receiver
C.Microsoft SQL server
D.Virtual Desktop Agent
Answer:C

Citrix   1Y0-A03 examen   1Y0-A03

NO.9 An administrator is planning a XenDesktop implementation and needs to take into consideration how
much storage will be necessary for the implementation.Which two XenDesktop configuration options
could the administrator implement to reduce storage usage? (Choose two.)
A.Stream applications through XenApp
B.Host the virtual desktops through XenServer
C.Provision standard images through Provisioning Server
D.Configure Microsoft Active Directory with roaming profiles for all users
Answer:A C

Citrix   1Y0-A03 examen   1Y0-A03   1Y0-A03 examen

NO.10 Which four XenDesktop 2.0 Enterprise Edition components make use of the standard Citrix licensing
infrastructure? (Choose four).
A.XenApp
B.XenServer
C.WANScaler
D.Desktop Delivery Controller
E.Provisioning Server for Desktops
F.Access Gateway Standard Edition
Answer:A D E F

Citrix   1Y0-A03 examen   1Y0-A03

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-118

Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix WinFrame 1.8 Administration)

Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 The default client window properties for an application set are set within Program Neighborhood by:
A.Selecting the Farm menu option, choosing properties then clicking the change button within the
Windows Size section.
B.Selecting the Settings menu option, choosing preferences then selecting the
appropriate properties.
C.Selecting the Settings on the Tools menu option, choosing settings, then change the settings under
Windows Size.
D.Selecting the Default Option tab from the farm's Properties option, then change the settings under
Window Size.
Answer: D

certification Citrix   certification 1Y0-118   1Y0-118 examen   1Y0-118 examen   certification 1Y0-118   1Y0-118

NO.2 What is the recommended minimum free disk space required to install WinFrame?
A.100 MB
B.150 MB
C.300 MB
D.350 MB
Answer: C

Citrix   1Y0-118   1Y0-118   certification 1Y0-118

NO.3 Which statement is true about the logon process?
A.A default policy is loaded prior to the user profile being loaded.
B.A private home directory is created of one has not been created for the user.
C.When a user logs on, the user's profile is loaded first and then the system policy is downloaded.
D.When a user logs on, the user's system policy is downloaded first followed by the user's profile.
Answer: C

Citrix examen   1Y0-118   1Y0-118   1Y0-118 examen

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Code d'Examen: 640-816

Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2)

Questions et réponses: 222 Q&As

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NO.1 Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco
switches?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
Answer: B

Cisco examen   640-816   640-816   640-816 examen

NO.2 A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of
this failure?
A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.
Answer: C

Cisco   640-816   640-816   certification 640-816

NO.3 Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
Answer: A

Cisco   640-816   640-816   640-816   640-816   640-816

NO.4 What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch
reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed
locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision
number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent
mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP
servers.
Answer: CF

certification Cisco   640-816   640-816   640-816

NO.5 The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the
graphic.
There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of
examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the
default and the router IDs are shown with each router.
Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Answer: DF

Cisco examen   640-816 examen   certification 640-816   640-816 examen

NO.6 Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit?
(Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same
encapsulation type.
Answer: DF

Cisco   640-816   640-816   640-816

NO.7 At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B

Cisco   certification 640-816   certification 640-816

NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the output of the R1# show ip route command and the information presented in the graphic,
which of the following is a potential routing problem?
A. the use of summarization for discontiguous networks
B. the use of CIDR with a routing protocol that does not support it
C. the use of VLSM with a routing protocol that does not support it
D. the use of the no auto-summary command with a protocol that does not support summarization
E. the use of the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command with a routing protocol that does not support it
Answer: A

Cisco   640-816   640-816   640-816 examen

NO.9 What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It converges quickly.
B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C. It uses cost to determine the best route.
D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.
Answer: ACF

certification Cisco   640-816   certification 640-816   640-816

NO.10 Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Answer: D

Cisco   640-816 examen   640-816   640-816   640-816 examen

NO.11 An administrator is troubleshooting a problem between routers that are using different versions of RIP.
Which two commands would provide information about which version of RIP was being sent and received
on an interface? (Choose two.)
A. show ip protocols
B. show ip route rip
C. show interfaces
D. debug rip routing
E. debug ip rip
Answer: AE

Cisco examen   640-816   640-816 examen   640-816

NO.12 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Answer: BC

Cisco examen   certification 640-816   640-816

NO.13 How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be
configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
C. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Answer: D

Cisco   640-816   640-816

NO.14 A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another
department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup
configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various
connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem?
A. The VLAN database was not erased.
B. The management VLAN is disabled.
C. The running configuration should have been erased.
D. The "mode" button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.
E. The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.
Answer: A

Cisco   certification 640-816   640-816 examen   640-816 examen   certification 640-816

NO.15 The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1.
What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)
A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be
forwarded out fa0/1.
F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be
forwarded out fa0/1.
Answer: BD

certification Cisco   640-816   640-816   640-816   640-816 examen

NO.16 Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Answer: BE

certification Cisco   640-816 examen   640-816   640-816   640-816

NO.17 The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6.
What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)
A. no broadcast
B. change of source address in the IPv6 header
C. change of destination address in the IPv6 header
D. Telnet access does not require a password
E. autoconfiguration
F. NAT
Answer: AE

Cisco   640-816 examen   640-816   certification 640-816

NO.18 A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses,
up to the maximum defined.
D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running
configuration.
E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice
VLAN.
Answer: CD

Cisco   640-816   640-816   640-816

NO.19 What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?
A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
Answer: B

Cisco examen   certification 640-816   640-816   640-816

NO.20 The network technician is planning to use the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask on the network.
Which three valid IP addresses can the technician use for the hosts? (Choose three.)
A. 172.22.243.127
B. 172.22.243.190
C. 172.22.243.191
D. 192.168.1.160
E. 10.17.64.34
F. 10.16.33.98
Answer: BEF

Cisco   640-816   640-816   640-816

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Code d'Examen: 642-642

Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Quality of Service (QoS))

Questions et réponses: 87 Q&As

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NO.1 In a managed CE scenario, the customer's network is supporting VoIP and bulk file transfers.
According to the best practices, which QoS mechanisms should be applied on the WAN edge CE-PE
56-kbps Frame Relay link on the CE outbound direction?
A. WRR, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
B. WRR, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
C. CBWFQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, CB-Policing, and FRTS
D. CBWFQ, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
E. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
F. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Policing, and CB-TCP and CB-RTP header compressions
Answer: E

certification Cisco   642-642 examen   certification 642-642   certification 642-642

NO.2 Based on the following 2950 switch configurations, which statement is correct?
no wrr-queue cos-map
wrr-queue bandwidth 20 10 70 1
wrr-queue cos-map 4 5
wrr-queue cos-map 1 0 1 2 3
wrr-queue cos-map 3 6 7
A. Queue 1 is setup as the expedite queue.
B. Queue 2 is setup as the expedite queue.
C. Queue 3 is setup as the expedite queue.
D. Queue 4 is setup as the expedite queue.
E. No queue is setup as the expedite queue.
Answer: E

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NO.3 LAB
A. Please click console
Answer:
2950.SWITCH>en
2950-SWITCH#config terminal
2950-SWITCH(config)#int fa0/1
2950-SWITCH(config-if)#mls qos trust dscp
2950-SWITCH(config-if)#exit
2950-SWITCH(config)#int fa0/11
2950-SWITCH(config-if)#mls qos trust cos
2950-SWITCH(config-if)#exit
2950-SWITCH(config)#int fa0/10
2950-SWITCH(config-if)#mls qos trust cos
2950-SWITCH(config-if)#mls qos trust device cisco-phone
2950-SWITCH(config-if)#exit
2950-SWITCH(config)#exit
2950-SWITCH#copy run start

NO.4 Answer:

NO.5 What does the following command accomplish?
router(config-pmap-c)# shape fecn-adapt
A. enables the router to lower the shaping rate when BECN bits are received
B. enables the router to lower the shaping rate when FECN bits are received
C. enables the router to respond to FECN bits by creating test frames in the opposite direction with the
BECN bit set
D. enables the router to respond to BECN bits by creating test frames in the opposite direction with the
FECN bit set
E. enables the router to increase the shaping rate when BECN bits are received
F. enables the router to increase the shaping rate when FECN bits are received
Answer: C

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NO.6 Answer:

NO.7 In an unmanaged CE router implementation, how does the service provider enforce the SLA?
A. by using class-based policing on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
B. by marking on the CE to PE link and using CBWFQ and CB-WRED on the PE to P link
C. by marking on the CE to PE link and using class-based policing on the PE to P link
D. by using class-based random discard on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
Answer: A

Cisco examen   642-642   642-642   642-642

NO.8 Which QoS mechanism calculates the mean queue depth to determine its operation?
A. WRED
B. LLQ/CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. class-based shaping
E. class-based policing
Answer: A

Cisco examen   642-642   642-642   certification 642-642

NO.9 What is the purpose of using multiactions traffic policing?
A. so that exceed traffic can be shaped and violate traffic can be policed
B. so that conform, exceed, and violate traffic can be marked with different CLPs
C. so that conform traffic from different flows can be marked with different DSCPs
D. so that class-based policing can mark at Layer 2 and Layer 3 at the same time
E. so that traffic can be policed using two separate rates
Answer: D

certification Cisco   642-642   642-642 examen   certification 642-642

NO.10 In which two locations is the qos pre-classify command applied to support QoS preclassification over an
IPSec/GRE tunnel? (Choose two.)
A. the tunnel interface
B. the physical interface
C. the crypto map
D. the policy-map
E. the class-map
Answer: AC

Cisco   642-642 examen   642-642

NO.11 The following commands have been configured under the fa0/1 interface on the 2950 switch:
wrr-queue bandwidth 20 1 80 0
mls qos trust cos
mls qos trust device cisco-phone
Voice traffic from the IP phone that is directly connected to the fa0/1 interface is experiencing excessive
delays.
What could be the cause of this problem?
A. The wrr-queue bandwidth weightings are not correct.
B. The default wrr-queue cos-map is being used.
C. The default cos-to-dscp map is being used.
D. The default dscp-to-cos map is being used.
E. The trust boundary configuration is not correct.
Answer: B

Cisco examen   642-642 examen   642-642

NO.12 Refer to the exhibit.
Which three statements are true about the configuration.? (Choose three.)
class-map class-1
match ip rtp 2024 1000
class-map class 2
match dscp 5 6 7
policy-map access-group-1-traffic
class class-1
shape peak 16000
class class-2
police 8000 1000
conform-action set-dscp-transmit 1
exceed-action set-dscp-transmit 0
violate-action drop
class class-default
fair-queue 16
queue-limit 20
interface fastethernet 0/0
service-policy output access-group1-traffic
A. Traffic that is subject to shaping can burst up to 32,000 bps.
B. IP traffic (DSCPs 5, 6, and 7) that is sent on fastethernet 0/0 will be traffic policed.
C. RTP traffic (ports 2024 and 1000) that is sent on fastethernet 0/0 will be traffic shaped.
D. Traffic that is subject to policing will have the DCSP set to 0 if the rate exceeds 1000 bps.
E. IP traffic (DSCPs 1, 2, 3, and 4) that is sent on fastethernet 0/0 are considered to have a violate status
and are dropped.
F. IP traffic (DSCP 0) that is sent on fastethernet 0/0 will be subject to fair queuing.
Answer: ABF

Cisco examen   642-642   642-642

NO.13 What is the purpose of the qos pre-classify command?
A. to enable the IOS to copy the ToS field from the original IP header to the outer tunnel IP header
B. to enable the IOS to copy the ToS field from the outer tunnel IP header back into the original IP header
C. to enable the IOS to classify the packet based on the original IP header instead of the tunnel IP header
D. to enable the IOS to classify the packet based on the outer tunnel IP header instead of the original IP
header
E. to enable class-based marking on tunnel interface
F. to enable class-based marking on IPSec crypto maps
Answer: C

Cisco   642-642   642-642   certification 642-642

NO.14 Which two commands are typically applied to the voice traffic class within a policy-map? (Choose two.)
A. shape peak {bps}
B. priority {kbps}
C. bandwidth {kbps}
D. compress header ip rtp
E. random-detect ecn
F. random-detect dscp-based
Answer: BD

Cisco   642-642   642-642   642-642 examen

NO.15 Switch port fa0/2 has been configured to connect an IP phone with an attached PC. Given the set of
commands shown below, where does the trust boundary lie?
interface fa0/2
mls qos trust cos
mls qos trust device cisco-phone
switchport voice vlan 112
A. between the IP phone and the switch
B. between the IP phone and the PC
C. between the access layer switch and the distribution layer switch
D. between the PC port and the LAN port on the IP phone
Answer: A

Cisco   642-642   642-642 examen   certification 642-642   certification 642-642   642-642

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