Dernières BlackBerry BCP-710 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: BCP-710
Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Selling the Blackberry Solution for Tech. Sales Professional)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 Which new feature of BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 can be utilized to minimize or eliminate
upgrade-related down-time? (Choose one.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the
bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
B. BlackBerry Enterprise Transporter
C. BlackBerry Administration Service
D. BlackBerry Disposition Service
E. High availability
F. Application Pool
Answer: E

BlackBerry   BCP-710   BCP-710

NO.2 Which of the following statements describe the SRP credentials used by the active and standby
instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server in a high availability environment? (Choose one.)
Tosee the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use a different SRP ID and
authentication key.
B. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use the same SRP ID and
authentication key.
C. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use the same SRP ID but
different authentication keys.
D. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use different SRP IDs but the
same authentication key.
E. The standby instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is automatically assigned an SRP ID or
authentication key.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Why would someone login to the BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager.? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. To add their account to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. To synchronize their S/MIME certificate
C. To set an enterprise activation password
D. To modify the BlackBerry Attachment Server settings
E. To modify their wireless PIM sync settings
Answer: C

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
What is the correct message flow for an email message going from the mailbox to the BlackBerry
smartphone?Place the steps in the correct order by dragging them from the left to the right.
Answer:

NO.5 Which two of the following are valid Wi-Fi security protocols? (Choose two.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. WPA
B. PSK
C. Triple DES
D. AES
E. PGP
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which three of the following features are new Calendar application enhancements introduced with
BlackBerry Device Software 5.0 and BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0? (Choose three.) Tosee the
Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Free/Busy Availability Lookup
B. Forward Calendar Entries
C. Calendar Attachment Support
D. Synchronization of public and private contacts
E. Create a new calendar entry from the BlackBerry device
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 Which three of the following roles are available by default in BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 role
based administration? (Choose three.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the
bottom of the screen.
A. Enterprise Administrator
B. Junior Help Desk
C. Senior Help Desk
D. Database Administrator
E. Senior Enterprise Administrator
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which two of the following are basic functions of the BlackBerry Mobile Data Service? (Choose two.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Allows organizations to deliver corporate data wirelessly
B. Enables the system administrator to manage BlackBerry smartphone policies
C. Incorporates the push delivery model and advanced security features for application
deployment
D. Allows BlackBerry smartphone users to manage applications installed on their BlackBerry smartphone
through the BlackBerry Desktop Manager
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Web-based access to BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 is a function of which component? (Choose
one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
B. BlackBerry Router Service
C. BlackBerry Controller Service
D. BlackBerry Administration Service
E. BlackBerry Collaboration Service
F. BlackBerry Mobile Data Service
Answer: D

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NO.10 The security team is requesting the ability to control what types of BlackBerry smartphones can activate
on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server. Using the Enterprise Service Policy which three restrictions can be
implemented to control which BlackBerry smartphones can use the BlackBerry Enterprise Server?
(Choose three.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Model Name
B. ESN Range
C. Manufacturer's Name
D. PIN Range
E. Wi-Fi Equipped
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 DRAG DROP
Which five components in the BlackBerry Enterprise Server are part of the attachment process when
requested from an email message on the BlackBerry smartphone?
Answer:

NO.12 Which three email platforms support BlackBerry Collaboration Service? (Choose three.)
To see the Acronym list click the ?Exhibit? button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Client for use with Microsoft Office Live Communications Server 2005 and Microsoft
Office Communications Server 2007
B. BlackBerry Client for IBM Lotus Sametime
C. BlackBerry Client for Novell GroupWise Messenger
D. BlackBerry Client for Microsoft Sharepoint
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 Which two BlackBerry Enterprise Server components CANNOT be installed on a separate computer?
(Choose two.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Administration Service
B. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
C. BlackBerry Router Service
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
E. BlackBerry Attachment Service
F. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
Answer: B,D

BlackBerry   BCP-710 examen   BCP-710

NO.14 What is the maximum number of total BlackBerry smartphone users (CAL's) that the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server can handle before it is recommended that a second BlackBerry Enterprise Server
instance be added to the BlackBerry Domain? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. 50
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 2000
E. 2500
Answer: D

BlackBerry examen   BCP-710 examen   BCP-710

NO.15 IT polices are assigned for the BlackBerry Enterprise Server at multiple levels. When there are
overlaps, what level of IT policies take priority? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. User
B. Group
C. Server
D. Domain
E. Corporate
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-873
Nom d'Examen: MYSQL (MySQL 5.0 Database Administrator Certified Professional Exam, Part I)
Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true regarding the data directory on a Windows binary
installation?
A. A script needs to be run to initialize it after installation.
B. It comes pre-initialized.
C. You can choose to pre-initialize it or initialize it manually during the installation.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Of the following mechanisms available to connect a MySQL client to a MySQL database server, which
types of connections are only available on Windows based systems?
A. TCP/IP
B. Sockets
C. Shared Memory
D. Named Pipes
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following is true of a MySQL client and server?
A. They must be run on the same type of Operating System.
B. They must be run on the same hardware architecture.
C. They do not have to be run on the same type of Operating System.
D. They do not have to be run on the same hardware architecture.
Answer: C,D

MYSQL   1Z0-873   1Z0-873 examen

NO.4 Which mysqld command line option disables incoming TCP/IP connections?
A. --shared-memory
B. --memlock
C. --no-networking
D. --skip-networking
Answer: D

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NO.5 MySQL is a multi-threaded database server. Every connection to the database server is handled by it's
own thread.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following best describes how MySQL utilizes the grant table buffers?
A. The grant table buffer loads grant table information into memory for fast access.
B. The grant table buffer loads what users are currently logged in and performing queries.
C. The grant table buffer holds requests waiting to check the grant table to perform access-control.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following are requirements for InnoDB binary portability?
A. Both machines must use the same operating system.
B. Database and table names must use lowercase format.
C. Both machines must use two's-complement integer arithmetic.
D. Both machines must use IEEE floating-point format or contain no floating-point columns.
Answer: B

MYSQL   1Z0-873   1Z0-873

NO.8 Which of the following statements correctly describes the way to enable and use shared memory
connections to the MySQL database server?
A. Shared memory connections are available by default on all platforms, but must have TCP/IP
networking disabled by using the --skip-networking option.
B. Shared memory connections are supported on all windows binaries, and is enabled by default.
C. Shared memory connections are supported on all windows binaries, and must be enabled by using the
--shared-memory command line option.
D. Shared memory is not a supported communication method for the MySQL database server.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which one of the following statements can be used to start MySQL 5.0 manually from the command line
on windows?
A. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysqladmin -u root start
B. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysqld
C. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysql_start
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following statements are true for locks established by the InnoDB storage engine?
A. It sometimes escalates locks to page level.
B. It sometimes escalates locks to table level.
C. It sometimes escalates locks to page or table level.
D. It never escalates locks to page or table level.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Another user has issued LOCK TABLES pets READ You can...?
A. Update table pets
B. SELECT from table pets
C. UPDATE and SELECT from table pets
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.12 When making connections to a MySQL server on a Unix platform, which of the following is true?
A. TCP/IP connections are faster than socket file connections.
B. Socket file connections are faster than TCP/IP connections.
C. TCP/IP and Socket file connections are equally as fast.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following is true for the command-line programs mysqlcheck and myisamchk?
A. mysqlcheck must run on the server to perform checks and repairs and myisamchk can perform checks
and repairs on a remote server.
B. mysqlcheck can perform checks and repairs on a remote server, and myisamchk must run on the
server.
C. Both mysqlcheck and myisamchk can perform checks and repairs on a remote server.
D. Neither mysqlcheck or myisamchk can perform checks and repairs on a remote server.
Answer: B

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NO.14 mysqldump can be instructed to dump...
A. Only table structures
B. Only data
C. Both table structures and data
Answer: C

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NO.15 Where is the data stored for a table that is defined as using the FEDERATED Storage Engine?
A. The data will always be stored on the local host.
B. The data will always be stored on a remote host.
C. The data can be stored on any host depending on the definition of the table.
D. The data will always be stored on disk.
E. The data will always be stored in memory.
F. The data will be stored according to the storage engine of the referenced table.
Answer: B

MYSQL   1Z0-873   1Z0-873 examen

NO.16 In a standard MySQL installation which of following files are stored below the data directory?
A. Format files for all the tables
B. Data and index files for MyISAM tables
C. InnoDB tablespace files
D. General server logs
E. MySQL upgrade script files
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.17 Which of the following is true for how the InnoDB storage engine uses diskspace?
A. It stores its data, index and undo information all in its own tablespace.
B. It stores its data in .MYD files, in the respective database directory, and its index and undo information
in its own tablespace.
C. It stores its data and index in .MYD and .MYI files, in the respective database directory, and undo
information in its own tablespace.
D. It stores its data, index and undo information in .MYD and .MYI files, in the respective database
directory.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following APIs/connectors are included in a MySQL distribution?
A. Connector/J
B. Connector/ODBC
C. C API
D. Connector/NET
E. Connector/MJX
Answer: C

MYSQL examen   1Z0-873   1Z0-873

NO.19 Which of the following best describes the processing model for how the MySQL server handles
queries?
A. The server uses a one-tier processing model in which each storage engine optimizes and processes
each query issued against it.
B. The server uses a two-tier processing model: a SQL/optimizer tier and a storage engine tier.
C. The server uses a three-tier processing model: a SQL/optimizer tier, a formatting tier and a storage
engine tier.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following package types are provided specifically for UNIX-style OS installations?
A. Essentials
B. RPM
C. Source
D. tar-packaged binary
Answer: B

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Dernières SAP C_BOCR_08 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C_BOCR_08
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate – Crystal Reports 2008)
Questions et réponses: 292 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the reason you cannot insert a Group layout chart in the Page Header section?
A. You do not have access to the database.
B. The Page Header section is suppressed.
C. A Group layout chart cannot be placed in the Page Header section.
D. You have not saved the report with data.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A. Insert a group name field.
B. Insert a summary field.
C. Insert a running total field.
D. Insert a formula field.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A. Browse Field
B. Repository Explorer
C. Formula Field Search
D. Global Formula Search
Answer: D

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NO.4 When should you use parameters?
A. When creating conditional Top N reports.
B. When identifying the data source location.
C. When identifying trends in data.
D. When creating dynamic groups.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A. If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B. If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C. If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D. If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying data
source?
A. Create a local cache of the data source.
B. Create a connection to the data source.
C. Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D. Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer: D

SAP   C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08

NO.7 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A. Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B. Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C. Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D. Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer: B

SAP examen   C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08

NO.8 You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A. Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D. Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A. IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B. NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C. IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D. NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer: C,D

SAP examen   certification C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08 examen

NO.10 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager's concerns?
A. Encrypt object packages.
B. Password protect object packages.
C. Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D. Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer: C

SAP   C_BOCR_08 examen   C_BOCR_08

NO.11 Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A. Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B. Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C. Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D. Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: C

SAP   C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08

NO.12 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A. Numbervar x; x = 5;
B. Dim x as Number x = 5
C. Dim x as Number x := 5
D. Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer: D

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NO.13 You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition.?
A. Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B. Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition = "Enabled"
D. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage =
"Enabled"
Answer: A

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NO.14 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A. UI Batch Size
B. Database Timeout
C. Maximum LOV Size
D. Maximum Rowset Records
Answer: A,C

SAP   C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08

NO.15 Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A. Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B. Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C. Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D. Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: B,C

SAP examen   C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08

NO.16 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A. Modification Date
B. Modification LastDate
C. Modification LastUpdate
D. Modification Time
Answer: A

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NO.17 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A. Move
B. Insert
C. Delete
D. Copy
E. Cut
Answer: D,E

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NO.18 You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A. Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B. Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C. Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D. Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A. Local Number x := 1;
B. Local NumberVal x := 1;
C. Local NumberVar x := 1;
D. Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.20 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic.
Which method must you use to achieve the required result?
A. Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C. Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C_BOSUP_90
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Support Associate - Incident Management with SAP BusinessObjects)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 How can you find the Root Cause Analysis within SAP Solution Manager?
A. Use the appropriate work center transaction code.
B. Fill in the search box with keyword Root Cause Analysis.
C. Open a new application with default settings.
D. Use the left side menu.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The customer has an error that can be reproduced on their system.
How do you proceed to investigate this issue?
A. The customer is no longer entitled to support since they have caused a fault in the system.
B. Ask the customer to use a different system since this installation is experiencing issues.
C. Ask the customer to document the workflow step by step so that you can attempt to reproduce the
issue on your internal system.
D. The customer's system has the fault therefore you only need to use their system for further
investigation and testing.
Answer: C

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NO.3 If you want to add an SAP or non-SAP system to your landscape, which transaction do you need to
run?
A. SOLMAN_WORKCENTER
B. MSY_SETUP
C. SMSY_SETUP
D. SMSY
Answer: D

SAP   C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90

NO.4 What is the Software Developer Network (SDN)?
A. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing information about code strategy for third
party products.
B. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing robust and complete information about
the underlying code of the SAP Product suite.
C. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing robust and complete collection of
content and collaboration dedicated to SAP technology.
D. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a tool that is available only to the SAP developer team to
brainstorm solutions for code level issues.
Answer: C

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NO.5 As an SAP partner you have implemented SAP Solution Manager.
Which of the following statements reflects the requirements with regards to SAP Solution Manager
installation on the customer site?
A. Customers do not require their own SAP Solution Manager installation.
B. Customers require their own installation of SAP Solution Manager.
C. Customers and partner need to have SAP Solution Manager clustered.
D. Customers need to install SAP Solution Manager and the partner needs to connect to it.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You receive a customer message where several issues are reported.
What will be your next step?
A. Ask the customer to create one message per issue.
B. Ask your colleagues for processing this message.
C. Solve all issues in the message, because it is beneficial for customers to report several issues in one
message.
D. Start message processing without contacting the customer.
Answer: A

SAP   C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90

NO.7 What is the characteristic of a system when defined as a subset of the installation in SAP systems.?
(Choose two)
A. A system corresponds to production, test AND development environment.
B. A system is identified using a system ID.
C. One system can be a child to multiple installations.
D. A system corresponds to either production, test OR development environment.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 What type of reports can be produced with SAP EarlyWatch Alert?
A. Reports exclusively with graphics
B. Reports with animations
C. Reports with or without graphics
D. Reports exclusively without graphics
Answer: C

SAP examen   C_BOSUP_90 examen   C_BOSUP_90

NO.9 What is Product Support Hierarchy in SAP environment? (Choose two)
A. It is an instrument in organization and reporting within Product Support.
B. It defines the maintenance pricing level.
C. It is a view on the Application Component Hierarchy.
D. It is part of the Service Level Agreement.
Answer: A,C

SAP   certification C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90 examen

NO.10 What does Mission-Critical Support within SAP Enterprise Support include? (Choose two)
A. Ramp-up support
B. Robust Service Level Agreements (SLA)
C. 7 x 24 root cause analysis
D. SAP system backup
Answer: B,C

SAP   C_BOSUP_90 examen   C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90

NO.11 What characterizes On the Job Enablement sessions?
A. They are workshops coordinated by the Partner Services Adviser (PSA).
B. They are open workshops.
C. They are not available to Channel partners.
D. They are chargeable add-ons.
Answer: A

SAP examen   C_BOSUP_90   certification C_BOSUP_90

NO.12 What is SAP EarlyWatch Check?
A. It is a fully automatically generated report.
B. It is a document that customers follow to check their platform.
C. It is a service delivered onsite.
D. It is a service delivered remotely.
Answer: D

SAP   certification C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90

NO.13 What is the recommended way to progress a message that is difficult to clarify?
A. Escalate the message immediately to a more senior support consultant.
B. Ask the client to provide screenshots and request information point by point.
C. Change the message status to Customer Action and tell the client that you cannot do much until more
information is provided.
D. Force the client to close the message and open a new one that is clearer.
Answer: B

SAP examen   C_BOSUP_90 examen   C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90 examen

NO.14 What can the processor use in the Service Desk for message processing? (Choose two)
A. CRM_DNO_MONITOR transaction within SAP GUI
B. Transaction INCMAN
C. Business Process Monitoring Work Center
D. Incident Management Work Center
Answer: A,D

SAP   C_BOSUP_90   C_BOSUP_90 examen

NO.15 What does priority in incident management mean?
A. It is an attribute of the customer's system.
B. It is an attribute that characterizes the urgency of an issue.
C. It is an attribute of the Service Desk.
D. It defines the importance of the customer for SAP.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C_TBW45_70
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Business Intelligence with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Organizations that are 'data rich, but information poor' might gain from the business knowledge
discovered through data mining. Which of the following are true regarding data mining? (Choose three)
A. Clustering is a data mining method.
B. Data mining is an analytical approach that looks for hidden information patterns in large databases.
C. Data mining can easily analyze historical information, but is unable to predict future trends.
D. Regression analysis is a data mining method.
E. ETL (Extraction, Transformation and Loading) is a data mining method.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Why are variables used in queries? (Choose three)
A. To limit the scope of a report and improve performance.
B. To improve the reliability of the results.
C. To limit the scope of a report and make it more targeted to a user or group of users.
D. To reduce the number of query definitions by having one query satisfy the needs of many users.
Answer: A,C,D

SAP examen   C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70 examen   C_TBW45_70 examen

NO.3 The APD (Analysis Process Designer) in SAP NetWeaver BI provides a mechanism for reading data
from a source and then transferring the analytical results back out to a data target. In this scenario, which
of the following are possible data targets of the APD? (Choose two)
A. Standard DataStore Objects
B. VirtualProviders
C. Meta Data Repository
D. DataStore Objects for direct update
E. InfoObject master data tables
Answer: D,E

SAP   certification C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70   certification C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70 examen   C_TBW45_70 examen

NO.4 Where can variables be created? (Choose two)
A. In the query definition where they are needed.
B. In the BEx Web Application Designer, in the "Data Provider" field.
C. While using a web browser to view query results.
D. When defining exceptions and conditions.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 The design mode of the BEx Analyzer allows you to: (Choose two)
A. Add your own navigation controls such as drop down lists and check boxes.
B. Add in your own broadcast scheduling options so users receive the workbook by email and in their SAP
NetWeaver Portal role.
C. Insert results from other data providers into the same workbook.
D. Access a toolbox of predefined macros that can automate common tasks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Characteristic value variables...
A. ...are created in the query definition and are therefore only available in that query definition.
B. ...are created for a characteristic in the query definition and are available for all query definitions of the
same InfoProvider.
C. ...are created for a characteristic in the query definition and are available for all query definitions of
InfoProviders containing this characteristic.
D. ...can be created for global use on an InfoProvider level, and can be created for local use in the query
definition.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements best describe the benefit of using data bursting as a broadcasting
distribution type? Data Bursting: (Choose two)
A. Allows you to broadcast report results to large numbers of non-SAP users via email.
B. Provides an easy way to improve the performance of all web-based BEx reports.
C. Provides an effective way to manage security across all BEx reports.
D. Allows you to broadcast user-specific results based on master data.
Answer: A,D

SAP   C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70 examen   C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70 examen

NO.8 If two queries are inserted into the same worksheet in a workbook, which of the following is a potential
conflict?
A. The results for one query could affect the results for the other query.
B. The first query on the worksheet is the only query accessible by the user.
C. If the user drills down in the first query, the query result could possibly extend into the area occupied by
the second query.
D. The security settings of the first query would override the security settings of the second query.
Answer: C

SAP   C_TBW45_70 examen   C_TBW45_70

NO.9 Which of the following are valid navigation steps in reporting in SAP NetWeaver BI? (Choose three)
A. Swap one characteristic with another.
B. Filter on a specific characteristic value.
C. Return to Start.
D. Sum and Filter.
Answer: A,B,C

SAP examen   C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70

NO.10 Which of the following statements regarding BEx Query Designer are correct? (Choose three)
A. Before defining a formula, you must ensure you have already created any restricted key figures that will
be referenced in the formula.
B. You can only drag and drop multiple characteristics into the query definition if they come from the same
dimension.
C. You can save a query that contains errors.
D. If a query contains errors, the system provides information to help you correct them, including menu
options that may be suitable.
E. You can maintain many of the properties of multiple characteristics or key figures simultaneously.
Answer: C,D,E

SAP   C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70

NO.11 One of your customers needs to know the BEx Broadcaster options for sending static snap-shots of
data. What would you tell them? (Choose three)
A. For workbooks, send as E-Mail as a Zip File.
B. For a web template, send as 'Independent HTML File'.
C. For a web template, send as 'HTML with Separate MIME Files' as a Zip File.
D. For a web template, send as an 'Online Link'.
Answer: A,B,C

SAP   C_TBW45_70   certification C_TBW45_70

NO.12 Valid BEx Broadcaster distribution types include: (Choose two)
A. Archive object
B. Email
C. CSV file
D. Printer
Answer: B,D

certification SAP   C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70   certification C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70 examen

NO.13 Your client is interested in the various formats used to distribute BI information. Which of the following
formats are available? (Choose three)
A. Precalculated XML file with separate MIME files.
B. Precalculated BEx Analyzer Workbooks.
C. Precalculated MHTML file.
D. Online links to current data.
E. Precalculated DOC file with separate MIME files.
Answer: B,C,D

SAP   C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70   certification C_TBW45_70

NO.14 Valid BI source objects for the BEx Broadcaster include: (Choose three)
A. Queries
B. iViews
C. Workbooks
D. Value Sets
E. Reports created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,C,E

SAP   C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70 examen

NO.15 A BEx Analyzer workbook can be based on which of the following? (Choose three)
A. A Query
B. A Query view created with the BEx Analyzer
C. An InfoProvider
D. A BEx Report created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,B,C

SAP examen   C_TBW45_70   C_TBW45_70 examen   C_TBW45_70

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L'avènement de la certification SAP pratique d'examen C_TSCM62_64 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C_TSCM62_64
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Order Fulfillment with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following elements can directly influence whether an availability check will be performed?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The schedule line category in the sales document
B. The item category in the delivery document
C. The check group in the material master
D. The item category in the sales document
E. The sales document type
Answer: A,B,C

SAP examen   C_TSCM62_64 examen   C_TSCM62_64

NO.2 Which of the following data elements represent standard split criteria in billing creation? Note: There
are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Material group
B. Billing date
C. Terms of payment
D. Payer
E. Order reason
Answer: B,C,D

SAP   certification C_TSCM62_64   C_TSCM62_64

NO.3 Which of the following is controlled by the configuration of the billing type?
A. How account determination should take place.
B. How the item category within the billing document will be determined.
C. If a billing plan will be determined when using this billing type.
D. If order related billing is supported when using this billing type.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is to be billed on the last day of the month, regardless of which day of the month the order
and delivery are processed. Which of the following procedures will fulfill this requirement?
A. Maintaining a customer-specific billing due list variant and scheduling a periodic job.
B. Maintaining a factory calendar with a single date per month and assigning it to the customer master
record of the payer.
C. Maintaining a billing date profile and assigning it to the sales document type.
D. Using the condition technique, assigning a billing date determination profile to the customer master
record of the payer.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The entry for the assignment of the incompleteness procedures to the sales document types contains
the following information: Sales Type: OR Description: Standard Order Procedure: 11 Description: Sales
Order Field: IC-dialog is flagged. Which of the following conclusions can you draw from this entry?
A. Incomplete standard orders must be released in a dialog for further process steps.
B. Procedure 11 specifies which fields in standard orders (header data) are checked for completeness
and order type OR cannot be saved if any of the fields are incomplete.
C. Incomplete standard orders can be saved after a warning message (dialog) appears.
D. Incomplete standard orders can be saved.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements regarding material determination are correct? Note: There are 2
correct answers to this question.
A. Condition tables must be defined in Customizing (IMG).
B. The definition of the substitution reason determines whether a manual or an automatic substitution
process should be used.
C. The material determination procedure is assigned to a combination of sales areas, customer pricing
procedures, and document pricing procedures.
D. The relevant substitution reason is specified in the access sequence.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components realizes cross-system application processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
C. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components ensures company-wide unification of data and
information in heterogeneous IT environments?
A. Business Warehouse
B. Knowledge Management
C. Enterprise Portal
D. Master Data Management
Answer: D

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NO.9 In the system, it is possible to have zero stock available and still receive a confirmed schedule line in the
sales order. Which of the following states the reason for this confirmation.?
A. Stock will be taken from another delivery at the shipping point.
B. The system automatically searches other plants for inventory and transfers this inventory to the plant
with zero inventory in the sales order.
C. The availability check that was carried out included a replenishment lead time in the scope of check.
D. A stock transfer will be created by inventory management when you save the sales order.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following Service Desk features provides all the functions to analyze and monitor an
entire SAP solution centrally?
A. root cause analysis
B. Implementation Roadmap
C. SAP Notes
D. SAP Solution Manager diagnostics
Answer: D

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NO.11 During sales order processing, a user will be alerted when stock is not available for material entered in
the sales order if the availability check was carried out. In which of the following ways will the user be
alerted about this situation?
A. An error message will appear on the status bar alerting the user to the situation.
B. The schedule line will be marked and highlighted by the system.
C. The availability control screen will be displayed.
D. The incompletion log will display the unconfirmed schedule line as a missing field.
Answer: C

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NO.12 You want to restrict what materials a customer can order. What do you use to achieve this?
A. Material group
B. Assortment module
C. Material listing
D. Product hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.13 The availability check (ATP) is carried out based on which of the following dates?
A. The material availability date
B. The transportation planning date
C. The goods issue date
D. The loading date
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following statements regarding the processing of the billing due list are correct? Note:
There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The billing due list is used to process sales orders and deliveries that are due for billing.
B. The billing due list is used for the periodic creation of billing documents.
C. You can only use the billing due list to process documents due for billing on the same date.
D. Only the general billing interface can be used for processing the billing due list.
E. There are various selection criteria available for processing the billing due list, such as sold-to party,
sales organization and shipping point.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.15 Which of the following statements regarding the free goods process is correct?
A. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity will always create a subitem.
B. Free goods with inclusive bonus quantity will always take place without a subitem being generated.
C. The free goods calculation rule only allows for whole unit free goods bonus increments.
D. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity must contain the same material for the ordered goods and
the free goods.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C_TFIN52_05
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Solution Consultant Financials - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 2005)
Questions et réponses: 299 Q&As

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NO.1 Drilldown reporting is a tool that enables you to analyze G/L account transaction figure and financial
statements
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 Payment Medium Workbench. (Choose Three)
A. New format can be created with little programming experience.
B. PMW facilitates uniformity.
C. Before PMW it is easy to maintain the program used in payment media.
D. PMW facilitates for select vendor open items during automatic payment run
E. In PMW format can easily be changed with making modification.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 You cannot specify attributes of each individual depreciation area
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.4 You define number assignment as either internal or external
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.5 Highest priority for deriving functional area is:
A. Manual Entry
B. Validation
C. CO document
D. Substitution
E. CO Master Data
Answer: A

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NO.6 An account group (multi) (Choose Three)
A. Is defined for every company code.
B. Defines the number range for a mater record.
C. Uses a field status group to control the field layout for the maintenance of mater records
D. Determines one-time accounts for accounts payable and accounts receivable.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 Debit Balance Check. (Choose Three)
A. Debit balance check can be maintained in the Vendor line items.
B. Vendor who has a debit balance, all of his line items always shown in the exception list
C. We can change the debit balance check.
D. Debit balance check can be carried out after payment run.
E. Debit Balance check is required if Vendor has a debit balance.
F. Debit balance check is carried out after payment proposal.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.8 Chart of depreciation is a catalog of country specific depreciation areas structured according to various
business aspects
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.9 In a Payment method definition: (Choose Two)
A. Define allowed currency for company code
B. Define allowed currency for country level
C. Define a maximum and min payment
D. Define house bank link
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which of the following about vendor transaction is correct (Multi)? (Choose Two)
A. A vendor down payment request is a noted item.
B. A vendor down payment request cannot be included in payment program to produce down payment
C. A vendor down payment is cleared after final invoice is received from vendor.
D. Vendor down payment is shown on balance sheet under normal reconciliation account for payables.
E. Special g/l transaction is one, which is included in spl purpose ledger under coding block in G/L
account
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 Cross company code Transaction
A. For cross company code transaction no configuration needs to be maintained
B. Cross company code document Transaction number contain company code of second
company number, document number of first company code and fiscal year.
C. All wrong
Answer: C

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NO.12 You define a financial statement version in two steps: (Choose Two)
A. Enter in the directory of financial statement versions
B. Define hierarchy levels and assign accounts
C. None of the above
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Screen layout rules control
A. field selection
B. all are correct
C. maintenance level
D. references/copies
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose Three)
A. A house bank can be assigned to a business area within the payment program configuration
B. A House bank account can be defined in more than one currency
C. The payments program can use a different House bank for each different payment method
D. When creating a House bank, you do not need to specify the country.
E. House bank master data must be created in advance, before assigning the House bank to a payment
method in the payment program configuration
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.15 Which of following statements are correct?
A. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are already created in
financial accounting but not yet created in sales and distribution.
B. The customer master data compares the customers in the legacy system with the customers in the R/3
System.
C. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are already created in
purchasing but not yet in sales and distribution.
D. The customer mater data comparison program checks whether the customer master record contains a
telephone number.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Chart of accounts can be modified to fit your requirements, but chart of depreciation is always country
specific
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.17 Asset class is a selection criterion in all standard reports in FI-AA
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.18 Layout for the master data of each asset class defines
A. number of tab pages
B. field groups that appear on tab pages
C. names of tab pages
D. all are correct
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following statements about financial reporting are correct.?
A. When displaying a financial statement, the system can automatically calculate the profit and loss
statement result.
B. You can obtain a summarized financial statement for any hierarchy level defined in the financial
statement version
C. A financial statement version cannot include more than one company code, unless you are using FI-LC
D. A financial statement version displays either a balance sheet or a profit and lost statement, not both.
E. The system can translate a financial statement into any currency for reporting purposes.
Answer: E

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NO.20 Several charts of depreciation can also be assigned to an asset class
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.21 Chart of depreciation (Choose Three)
A. is assigned to company code
B. you cannot add/delete additional areas
C. it is also possible to open depreciation areas after the production start of the system
D. you can delete areas you do not need
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.22 Controlling area can include one or more company codes
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.23 Asset classes (Choose Five)
A. consist of a master data section and a depreciation area section
B. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets, you can choose that
they be specified by the system
C. are assigned to at least one chart of depreciation
D. consist of a master data section only
E. asset classes are created at client level
F. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets
G. you can suppress individual depreciation areas in each asset class
H. asset classes are created at company code level
Answer: A,B,C,E,G

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NO.24 Chart of depreciation is assigned to company code and necessary data for asset accounting is added
to company code. Hence company code is available for use in asset accounting
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.25 Each company code has its own number range and company codes cannot share number ranges
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.26 All reconciliation accounts and all G/L accounts with open item transactions in foreign currency must
be assigned to the G/L account for realized losses and gains. Which of the following options exist for this
assignment: (Choose Two)
A. A single G/L account can not be used per currencies and currency types.
B. A single G/L account can be used per currency.
C. A single G/L account can not be used per currency type
D. A single G/L account can be used for all currencies and currency types
Answer: B,D

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NO.27 mySAP ERP delivers standard depreciation areas and additional areas cannot be defined
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.28 Profit and Loss using the Period Accounting and Cost of Sales Accounting:
A. The operating result can be different.
B. In Cost of Sales accounting, the output of a period and the total cost of this period are
summarized
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. In period accounting the sales revenue for a period and sales costs of the period are
summarized.
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which of the following statements about creating customer master records are correct?
(Choose Four)
A. The company code is always a required entry.
B. An account group always gets assigned to a customer.
C. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or optional,
depending upon the company code
D. The account number may be assigned by the user externally.
E. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or optional,
depending upon the account group
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.30 When you create asset master records this data is automatically adopted from the asset class you
specify
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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