98-373 074-335 dernières questions d'examen certification Microsoft et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: 98-373
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Mobile Development Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 235 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 074-335
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Network Readiness and Assessment for Lync)
Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

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NO.1 You create an application that uses features from both XNA and Microsoft Silverlight.
Which file in Microsoft Visual Basic .NET is specifically created by the Windows Phone Silverlight
and XNA application template for your XNA code?
A. App.xaml.vb
B. MainPage.xaml.vb
C. GamePage.xaml.vb
D. AppServiceProvider.vb
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three navigation buttons are mandatory on Windows Phone devices? (Choose three.)
A. Home
B. Next
C. Start
D. Back
E. Search
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.3 Which Windows Phone theme color is used to single out items of interest in Windows Phone
applications?
A. Foreground
B. Accent
C. Contrast
D. Background
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which Windows Phone resource brush is used to match the color of the Application Bar?
A. PhoneAccentBrush
B. PhoneContrastForegroundBrush
C. PhoneChromeBrush
D. PhoneForegroundBrush
Answer: C

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NO.5 What type of application can be developed by using HTML5 in Windows Internet Explorer on
Windows Phone 7.S without going through the Marketplace certification process?
A. A rich Internet-based application
B. A form-based web application that uses the local database to store the form data
C. An application that can store data to the local isolated storage
D. A game that uses the accelerometer
Answer: A

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NO.6 How should you handle long-running tasks in an application?
A. By displaying a progress bar and running the tasks in the background, and then ensuring that the
users are able to cancel the operations
B. By caching the result to application runtime when the tasks complete for the first time
C. By prompting the users before starting the tasks and allowing them to stop the tasks from
occurring
D. By stopping all other operations and running only the tasks
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three applications are available on a Windows Phone 7 device, but not on the device
emulator user interface? (Choose three.)
A. xbox Live
B. Windows Internet Explorer
C. Windows Phone Marketplace
D. Bing Maps
E. Pictures Hub
Answer: A,C,D

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Explanation:
Windows Internet Explorer and Pictures Hub work in the device emulator.

NO.8 Which component should you use to provide quick access to common tasks in a Windows
Phone application?
A. ListBox
B. Application Bar
C. Panorama
D. pivot
Answer: B

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VCP510PSE VCP550 VCAC510 dernières questions d'examen certification VMware et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: VCP510PSE
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 - Data Center Virtualization PSE)
Questions et réponses: 318 Q&As

Code d'Examen: VCP550
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 267 Q&As

Code d'Examen: VCAC510
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Associate - Cloud Exam (VCA-Cloud))
Questions et réponses: 97 Q&As

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NO.1 You're concerned a physical host outage will impact running VMs in your cloud environment.
Which of the following vSphere features will help recover from a failed ESXi host?
A. vSphere High Availability
B. vMotion
C. Storage vMotion
D. Distributed Resource Scheduler
Answer: A

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Reference:http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51 /topic/com.vmware.ICbase/PDF/vsphere-esxivcente
r-server-51-availability-guide.pdf(page 9, see drs and vmotion integration, last sentence)

NO.2 You are asked to explain to your company's technical staff the vCloud feature used to logically
group users and resources so that each department can have its own virtual datacenter. Which of
the following are you describing to your staff?
A. Organizations
B. Clusters
C. Folders
D. Pods
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware-Architecting-vCloud-WP .pdf

NO.3 You have been tasked with setting up various automation features in your private cloud. You
know that vCloud Automation Center is going to be the perfect tool for the job. What are the
available purchase options for vCloud Automation Center?
A. It is available with vSphere or vCloud Enterprise.
B. It is available on a stand-alone basis or with vCloud Enterprise.
C. It is only available on a stand-alone basis.
D. It is only available with vCloud Enterprise.
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/in/products/vcloud-automation-center/pricing.html

NO.4 You need a solution for your burst utilization without paying for unused capacity during
non-peak hours. Which vCloud product will solve this problem?
A. vCloud APIs
B. vCloud Automation Center
C. vCloud Networking and Security
D. vCloud Connector
Answer: D

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Reference:http://cloud.idglabs.net/?p=1860

NO.5 An administrator is considering a private cloud solution. The existing environment contains a
number of print servers and a systems monitoring server. These applications are considered which
type of workload?
A. Elastic
B. Infrastructure
C. Transient
D. Management
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your manager is concerned that, even in the cloud, provisioning hundreds or thousands of
VMs will result in a lot of redundant storage use. You explain that you can minimize the use of
redundant storage with vCloud by making use of which of the following features?
A. Snapshots
B. Fast Provisioning
C. Templates
D. Storage DRS
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware-Architecting-vCloud-WP .pdf

NO.7 You have Site Recovery Manager (SRM) in place to protect critical vCloud servers in the event
of a disaster. Over lunch, a manager asks you why SRM is configured to protect only the vCloud
servers and not the actual department workload VMs. What do you tell her?
A. The workload VMs are on fenced networks, which can't be failed over.
B. SRM can't fail over the workload VMs, but it is a simple matter to restart them once the vCloud
servers have failed over.
C. Workload VM failover is implied when you failover the vCloud infrastructure servers.
D. vCloud workloads can be migrated with vCloud Director once it has failed over and so are not
required to be protected with SRM.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.yellow-bricks.com/ 2012 / 02 /13 /vcloud-director-infrastructure-resiliencysolutio
n/

NO.8 You received an email from your cloud team's senior technical architect asking you to
implement snapshots in your cloud where it makes sense to do so. You ask the architect to clarify
where in your cloud it would make the most sense to use snapshots. Which of the following is the
most likely answer they would give you?
A. Catalogs: To back out any unauthorized changes
B. Production web servers: To provide a backup of each day's changes
C. Development VMs: To roll back code updates
D. vApps: To roll back to their original deployment state
Answer: C

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Reference:http://searchvmware.techtarget.com/definition/VMware-snapshot

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Code d'Examen: 250-405
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5)
Questions et réponses: 200 Q&As

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NO.1 What can the administrator use to have resources assigned to specific sites without
administrative intervention and as they register with the Notification Server?
A. Automation policy
B. Active Directory import policy
C. Inventory policy
D. Custom Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.2 A Symantec Management Platform 7.5 administrator attempts to discover all network
resources using the ping function, and none are found. After conferring with the network
administrator, it is determined that ping is blocked on all network devices for security purposes.
Which other protocol can the administrator use to discover network devices using Network
Discovery?
A. CDP
B. HIP
C. ARP
D. RIP
Answer: C

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NO.3 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console?
(Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator is attempting to set up a replication rule. When the administrator right-clicks the
replication folder, the menu in the exhibit appears. What does the administrator need to do to
create a replication rule?
A. enable Replication
B. access one of the Replication subfolders
C. access the resource and select Replicate Now
D. create a subfolder and access it there
Answer: B

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NO.6 If installation of the Package Service on the Site Server is forgotten, what is the impact on a
new hierarchy implementation?
A. Replication performance is degraded.
B. Data replication stops.
C. Hierarchy installation is denied.
D. Hierarchy replication switches to HTTP .
Answer: C

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13. Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification
Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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14. Which two methods can an administrator use to create tasks? (Select two.)
A. clone an existing task
B. clone a task report
C. right-click a reports folder and select New -> Task
D. right-click a Jobs and Tasks Portal folder and select New -> Task
E. clone an existing patch
Answer: A,D

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15. Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations
imported from Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500
workstations. The Marketing Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results,
they find that there is an overlap of 100 workstations. Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. Because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizational view.
B. Because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. Because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. Because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit.
A target has been created with two rules: 1) 'exclude computers not in' filter Windows XP
Computers, and 2) 'include computers in' filter All Computers. There are 150 computers in the
Windows XP Computers filter. There are 200 computers in the All Computers filter. How many
computers will be in the target?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 200
D. 350
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent
and stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur Oracle 1Z0-466 1z0-485 1Z1-465

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-466
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Project Lifecycle Management Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-485
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Exadata Database Machine Models X3-2 and X3-8 Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z1-465
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle RightNow CX Cloud Service 2012 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 At the end of iteration phase, during Project Execution and Control, which three key tasks
should be conducted?
A. QM.050 Perform Quality Assurance
B. WM.050 ManageApprovals
C. CMM.030 Manage Project Team Communication
D. PKM.020 Conduct Baseline Risk Assessment
E. SM.060 Close Scope management
F. PKM.060 Conduct Post-Production Risk Assessment
G. OCHM.040 Establish Follow-Up process
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 What is not true about planning in OUM?
A. OUM has been developed with the intent that the approach for a given project be built up from a
core set of activities.
B. Projects should be tailored down from the full OUM work breakdown structures.
C. OUM takes an iterative and incremental approach to planning a project.
D. Tasks within OUM are considered place holders for work.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Incorrect: Not A:OUM is designed to support a broad range of project types. As such, it must be
flexible andscalable. The appropriate point of balance for a given project will vary based on a
number of project risk and scale factors. The method has been developed with the intent that the
approach for a given project be "built up" from a core set of activities to implement an appropriate
level of discipline, rather than "tailored down".
Not C:OUM recognizes the advantages of an iterative and incremental approach to development
and deployment of information systems. Any of the tasks within OUM may be iterated. Whether or
not to iterate, as well as the number of iterations, varies. Tasks may be iterated to increase quality of
the work products to a desired level, to add sufficient level of detail, or to refine and expand the
work products on the basis of user feedback.

NO.3 According to the recommended training for this exam, what is the definition of a project?
A. A sequence of tasks with a beginning and an end, bound by time, responses, and desired results
B. Anything for which there is an executed contact
C. A sequence of tasks for there is a Statement work
D. A sequence of tasks with a specified end date
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which is the type of closure described as the mechanical an analytical step associated with the
closure of a project or phase?
A. Contractual
B. Typical
C. Intra-business
D. Conventional
Answer: A

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NO.5 Select the three key project roles as prescribed by OUM Manage.
A. Stakeholder
B. Change Control Board
C. Issue Review Board
D. Project Team
E. Testing Committee
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
A:Project managers use OUM to make sure they and their stakeholders develop a shared
understanding of what is needed, choose an appropriate architecture, and transfer the ownership of
the end-product to the stakeholders.
B:CCB(Change Control Board)is a review committee that discusses and approves requests for
changes to On Demand customer system configurations. The change requests are fulfilled in the
following ways:
A work guideline is generated by engineering for operations to use and implement.
The changes are included in Oracle Certified Configurations.
D:Project teams to take advantage of this experience by

NO.6 What is not true about risk management in OUM Manage?
A. The project manager should regularly conduct risk assessments.
B. Risks become even more critical during the Project Execution and Control Phase.
C. Particular attention should be paid to risks prior to production cutover.
D. If a baseline risk assessment is done during the Project Startup phase, there are no further risk
assessment required on the project.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which is true about OUM Manage?
A. It emphasizes clearly documenting the scope of the project and the exact procedures to
implement changes to this scope.
B. It is not possible to control the project timeline without a detailed project plan.
C. It is necessary to only document the items in the scope.
D. If the project sponsor requires a functional change, the project team must comply with the
request.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-466 examen   1Z0-466
Explanation:
The Manage focus area is organized into 13 processes: Bid Transition (A)Scope Management
Financial Management
Work Management Risk Management Issue and Problem Management Staff Management
Communication Management Quality Management Configuration Management Infrastructure
Management Procurement Management Organizational Change Management
Collectively, these processes form a comprehensive set of tasks required to manage Oracle-based
development and implementation projects. Every project includes most, if not all, of these
processes, whether they are the responsibility of a consulting organization, a client organization, or
a third party.

NO.8 What describes the nature of the activities within the Project Execution and Control phase?
A. They are dependent upon one another.
B. They are dependent upon earned value.
C. They are ongoing.
D. They are grouped according to priority.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-478
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-062
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration)
Questions et réponses: 166 Q&As

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NO.1 When more than one policy is attached to a policy subject, the combination of policies needs
to be valid. Which statement is true about the valid combination of policies for a policy subject?
A. Only one MTOM policy can be attached to a policy subject.
B. More than one Reliable Messaging policy can be attached to a policy subject.
C. Both a Reliable Messaging policy and a WS-Addressing policy cannot be attached to the same
policy subject.
D. Only one security policy can be attached to a policy subject.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note:
*Within a SOA composite application, you must attach the Oracle WS-MTOM policy to service and
reference binding components to receive and send MTOM (MIME binary) attachments within
Oracle SOA Suite.
*Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Ensures that attachments are in MTOM format. This format enables binary data to be sent to and
from web services. This reduces the transmission size on the wire.
*ReliabilityPolicy
Supports the WS-Reliable Messaging protocol. This guarantees the end-to-end delivery of
messages.
* Addressing Policy Verifies that simple object access protocol (SOAP) messages include
WS-Addressing headers in conformance with the WS-Addressing specification. Transport-level data
is included in the XML message rather than relying on the network-level transport to convey this
information.

NO.2 Which two approaches are valid when using dynamic partner links in a BPEL process?
A. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use the same portType, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which service is used can only be made at runtime.
B. When the BPEL process is designed, the endpoint URL of the WSDL file is known but the services
and port types are not known.
C. When the BPEL process is designed, the services and port types of the WSDL file are known but
the endpoint URI is not known.
D. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use different portTypes, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which server us used can only be made at runtime.
Answer: A,C

certification Oracle   certification 1Z1-478   certification 1Z1-478
Explanation:
A (not D):How To Create a Dynamic Partner Link at Design Time for Use at Runtime
To create a dynamic partner link at design time for use at runtime:
etc
C (not B):The BPEL specification mandates that only the partner endpoint reference (EPR) can be
changed dynamically. In BPEL terms, only the partnerRole of a partner link element can have a new
value assigned. The myRole value doesn't change after the BPEL has been deployed.
Note: *Dynamic Partner Links and Dynamic Addressing During the design-time of an application,
you may need to configure certain services whose endpoints (addresses) are not known beforehand,
or it may be necessary to change an endpoint reference while the application is running. The
Dynamic Partner link feature allows you to dynamically assign an endpoint reference to the partner
link. This means that you can use onepartner link for subsequent calls to different web-services
(provided that the services use the same interface). *For successful deployment of the process, a
partner link should be completely defined. When you deploy the project, the WSDL file for the
partner link should contain and define both the abstract and the concrete information for the
partner link, including address and port, though later the concrete information can be changed
independently from the WSDL file.

NO.3 A partner needs to access services that are defined in one of your Service Composite
Architecture (SCA) applications via a web service interface. Which approach (and accompanying
reasoning) describes a loosely coupled and robust solution?
A. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an Interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to hide the locations of your SCA application, perform load-balancing across those endpoints, and
provide the ability to define service level agreements to help ensure that you are meeting your
contractual obligations to the partner.
B. Use the Mediator component to provide a web service interface to your SCA application. This
arrives you the flexibility of using the industry standard XSLT technology to perform translation and
transformations.
C. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to "skin" your SCA application with a web service interface and still provide a robust experience to
the partner.
D. Allow the partner simply to connect directly to the SCA application. This provides the best
performance and helps keep the partner happy.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You expand a business rule component that a colleague added to the BPEL process. You see an
Assign element named Facts_To_Rule_Service.
Which statement is true bout this Assign element?
A. It was added automatically based on entries that your colleague made in the dialog box that
approved when the business rule component was added to the BPEL model.
B. Your colleague manually added this Assign element after adding the business rule component to
the BPEL Model.
C. This Assign element was automatically added when your colleague manually addedthe
corresponding Rule_Service_To_Facts assign to the BPEL model.
D. You can delete this Assign because it was created for documentation purposes only.
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z1-478   1Z1-478
Explanation:
Note: *Facts_To_Rule_Service: Assigns the facts to a variable.

NO.5 Identify two features of Oracle BAM.
A. Enterprise Manager's monitoring capabilities are central to Oracle BAM's ability to monitor
performance indicators.
B. You can analyze and present Information from activities spanning multiple systems and
applications.
C. Rich browser-based dashboards provide visibility into current values of key performance
indicators (KPIs).
D. There is a built-in trouble ticket system to track assignment and completion of corrective actions.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle Business Activity Monitoring (Oracle BAM) gives business executives the ability to
monitor their business services and processes in the enterprise, to correlate KPIs down to the actual
business process themselves, and most important, to change business processes quickly or to take
corrective action if the business environment changes.

NO.6 Which two features are provided by decision tables?
A. Sets of input data can be bucketed and reviewed for gaps.
B. Data sets can be reviewed for conflicts.
C. Data can be used for only one rule evaluation.
D. A rule evaluation can be used only to enter new output data.
Answer: A,B

Oracle   1Z1-478 examen   1Z1-478
Explanation:
After you create a Decision Table there are operations that you may want to perform on the
Decision Table, including the following:
(A)Find and fix gaps in a Decision Table (B)Finding and resolving conflicts between rules in a
Decision Table Compact or split cells in a Decision Table Merge a condition or split a condition in a
Decision Table
A: *Compact the Decision Table
In this step you compact the rules to merge from eighteen rules to nine rules. This automatically
eliminates the rules that are not needed and preserves the no gap, no conflict properties for the
Decision Table.
*The Conditions area in a Decision Table includes one or more condition rows. Each condition row
has a condition expression and, for each rule, a condition cell. A condition expression is an
expression that you build in Rules Designer. The condition expression is often a fact property or a
function result, but it can be any expression that has a type that can be associated with a bucketset.
B:A Decision Table displays multiple related rules in a single spreadsheet-style view. In Rules
Designer a Decision Table presents a collection of related business rules with condition rows, rules,
and actions presented in a tabular form that is easy to understand. Business users can compare cells
and their values at a glance and can use Decision Table rule analysis features by clicking icons and
selecting values in Rules Designer to help identify and correct conflicting or missing cases.

NO.7 In your solution, a web service client needs to invoke a series of three web services in support
of a single transaction. The third web service needs the identity of the original web service client.
Which statement describes how the identity is made available by Oracle Web Services Manager
(OWSM)?
A. The transaction manager accesses an internal table that maintains credentials used to invoke
each individual web service in the chain.
B. Each web service in the chain does its own authentication so the third web service handles its
own identity checking.
C. OWSM sets the user in the Java Authentication and Authorization (JAAS) Subject when the first
web service successfully authenticates, and the Java Subject is used by subsequent web services to
access the identity.
D. OWSM stores a SAML token from the first web service invocation in a database table, and that
table is accessed by subsequent web services in the chain to retrieve identity.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Oracle Web Services Manager is a component of the Oracle Enterprise Manager Fusion Middleware
Control, a run-time framework that provides centralized management and governance of Oracle
SOA Suite environments and applications. You create and configureOracle Web Services Manager
policies in Oracle Enterprise Manager, and those policies are persisted in a policy store (a database
is recommended). Oracle Web Services Manager lets you define policies against an LDAP directory
and generate standard security tokens (such as SAML tokens) to propagate identities across multiple
Web services used in a single transaction.

NO.8 Identify two correct descriptions of Oracle Web Services Manager (OWSM).
A. It enables you to externalize web services security from the applications youbuild.
B. It manages policies in a distributed policy manager that serves as a single policy enforcement
point.
C. Use security and management events, captured by OWSM agents, are displayed using Oracle
BAM.
D. It supplies predefined security policies that enable declarative security and management
definition.
E. It uses Oracle Event Processing (OEP) to determine when security violations have occurred.
Answer: B,C

Oracle examen   1Z1-478   1Z1-478 examen   1Z1-478 examen
Explanation:
Note: *Oracle WSM allows companies to (1) centrally define and store declarative policies applied
to the multiple web services making up a SOA infrastructure, (2) locally enforce security and
management policies through configurable agents, and (3) monitor runtime security events such as
failed authentication or authorization.
*Oracle Web Services Manager offers a comprehensive and easy-to-use solution for policy
management and security of service infrastructure. It provides visibility and control of the policies
through a centralized administration interface offered by Oracle Enterprise Manager.

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Nom d'Examen: Nortel (SCCS/Express/TAPI/Web Client/Agent)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 An SECC contact center with 10 Supervisor clients logged in and using the real time
displays would be using how many of the 75 simultaneous real time sessions?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: D

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NO.2 Symposium Agent and TAPI can co-reside on the same server if the agent count does not
exceed which?
A. 500
B. 600
C. 750
D. 1200
Answer: A

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NO.3 Symposium Agent provides enterprises with the ability to add agents in groups and to
purchase licenses incrementally to meet the growth demands of the CTI
screen-pop-enabled agents. What license packages are available to configure?
A. 1, 10, 50, 100, 200, 500
B. 1, 5, 10, 25, 100, 250, 500
C. 1, 5, 10, 50, 100, 200, 300, 500
D. 1, 10, 25, 50, 75, 100, 300, 500
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two are true for using graphical real-time displays with SECC 3.0?
A. The maximum number of GRTDs is ten
B. GRTD must run on a stand-alone PC
C. SECC 3.0 is backward compatible with all versions of GRTD
D. Each GRTD that runs on a client PC uses one of the Supervisor/Realtime sessiosn of the
SECC
Answer: AD

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NO.5 An enterprise wants to add desktop functionality that is flexible and able to respond to the
different needs of callers based on the skill set the calls is routed into. This mid-sized
organization of 100 agents has the expectation to grow to 150 over the next two years, but
will only accept a low-cost solution. What contact center product provides this flexibility?
A. Symposium Agent with the ability to present the correct screen to the agent based on business
rules
B. Symposium Web Center Portal with the ability to present e-mail, chat, an/or collaboration
screens based on customer requirement
C. Symposium Agent Greeting with its ability, based on skill-set, to customize information for
call presentation
D. Symposium TAPI SP with the ability, based on skillset, to route caller information with the
call delivery at the phoneset
Answer: A

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NO.6 Select three true statements of comparison of SECC 3.0 to SymposiumCallCenterServer
A. SECC connects to Option 11C Mini
B. Both provide host data exchange (HDX)
C. SECC has an automated scripting agent, SCCS does not
D. SECC is scaled to accommodate about 75% fewer trunks than SCCS
Answer: ACD

certification Nortel   920-316   920-316

NO.7 For Symposuim Agent (SA) to be fully operational in a Meridian1 or DMS environment,
what key component must be in place to monitor the client lines?
A. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines
B. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines but only if used to monitor or control
Multiple Appearance Directory Number (MADN) lines
C. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
D. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What Windows sub-components are used in the communication exchange between the
Symposium Agent server running IIS, and the agent desktop running internet Explorer?
A. DCOM and MTS
B. HTTP and DCOM
C. LDAP and MTS
D. ODBC and COM
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 070-346
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements)
Questions et réponses: 78 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 74-697
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (OEM Preinstallation)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 You have a server named Server1that runs Windows Server 2012.
You plan to install the Windows Deployment Services server role onServer1to deploy images to the
client computers of your customers.
You need to identify what must be deployed to the network before you can deploy images by using
Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
What should you identify?
A. the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
B. a domain controller
C. the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK)
D. a DHCP server
Answer: D

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NO.2 The customer currently has four client computers that have a Full Packaged Product (FPP)
version of Windows 7 Ultimate.
The customer plans to install Windows 8 on the four computers.
You need to recommend a Windows 8 licensing solution for the 24 computers. The solution must
minimize licensing costs.
What should you recommend?
A. 20 FPP licenses for Windows 8 and four OEM licenses for Windows 8
B. 20 OEM licenses for Windows 8 and four FPP licenses for Windows 8
C. 24 OEM licenses for Windows 8 with Software Assurance
D. 24 OEM licenses for Windows 8
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your company is introducing a new line of computers.
All of the computers use Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI).
You need to create a partition that includes the Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE).
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A. Set the partition Type to Primary.
B. Set the partition Type to EFI.
C. Set the partition TypeID to 0x27.
D. Set the partition TypeID to de94bba4-06d1-4d40-al6a-bfd50179d6ac
E. Set the partition Type to MSR.
F. Set the partition TypeID to 0x07.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 You work for an OEM system builder.
A technician applies a generalized image of Windows 8 to a client computer, and then
shuts down the computer.
You need to configure the computer for push-button reset.
What should you do first?
A. Start the computer from Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE), and then run
sysprep.exe /oobe.
B. Start the computer, and then complete the installation of Windows 8.
C. Start the computer, and then shut down the computer when Windows Welcome appears.
D. Start the computer from Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE), and then run
wbadmin.exe.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You create a Windows 8 image named Custom.wim.
You deploy the image to several client computers.
You need to ensure that Custom.wim can be used when a user launches a restore process
from the Windows recovery tools.
How should you rename Custom.wim before you copy the image to the restore partition?
A. Install.wim
B. Boot.wim
C. Winpe.wim
D. Winre.wim
Answer: A

Microsoft   74-697 examen   74-697 examen   74-697 examen

NO.6 You need to apply a hotfix to a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) image by
using Dism.
Which parameter should you use?
A. /Enable-Feature
B. /Add-Driver
C. /Set-Edition
D. /Add-Package
Answer: D

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NO.7 You deploy an image of Windows 8 to 500 client computers that will be shipped to a customer.
You start one of the computers and verify that the Windows Welcome screen is displayed.
You need to restart the computer in audit mode.
Which keyboard shortcut should you use?
A. CTRL+SHIFT+ESC
B. WIN + D
C. CTRL+SHIFT+F3
D. CTRL+ALT+TAB
Answer: C

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NO.8 You work for an OEM system builder named Fabrikam, Inc.
You plan to deploy an image from a network share.
You need to ensure that when Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) starts, Plug and
Play devices are installed, settings in Unattend.xml are applied, and network resources are loaded.
Which command should you execute from Startnet.cmd?
A. wpeinit.exe
B. drvload.exe
C. netsh.exe
D. winpeshl.exe
Answer: A

Microsoft examen   74-697   74-697   74-697 examen