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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-259
Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix Presentation Server 4.5: Administration)
Questions et réponses: 126 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three steps are required to deploy clients using Microsoft Active Directory? (Choose
three.)
A.Create a network share.
B.Configure a policy in Presentation Server for Client deployment.
C.Add users to an Organizational Unit designated for Presentation Server environment.
D.Create a new package in the Software Installation object for an Active Directory group policy object.
E.Browse to the installation files on the network share and assign them to the Organizational Unit which
includes the client devices.
Correct:A D E

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NO.2 Scenario: Users in the Human Resources department experience long wait times when loading
graphics in published Internet Explorer and Microsoft Outlook. Which SpeedScreen solution
should be configured to lower the resolution of these graphics and optimize the user experience?
A.SpeedScreen Image Acceleration
B.SpeedScreen Progressive Display
C.SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration
D.SpeedScreen Multimedia Acceleration
Correct:C

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NO.3 Scenario: When planning a Presentation Server deployment on multiple servers, an organization
wants to ensure that there is no Presentation Server as a single point of failure. Which three
database options eliminate the single point of failure? (Choose three.)
A.Oracle
B.IBM DB2
C.Microsoft Access
D.Microsoft SQL Server
E.Microsoft SQL Express
Correct:A B D

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NO.4 Scenario: An administrator wants to create and deploy a client package that includes the Web
Client using the Client Packager. The administrator wants: To be able to make modifications to the
file The client name to be different from the computer name Users to specify a username and
password to log on to a session Clients to be deployed from a web page using Web Interface
Based on these requirements, which two steps must be completed when creating and deploying
the client package? (Choose two.)
A.Create a network share.
B.Select the manage client deployment task.
C.Accept the default value for the client name option.
D.Enable users to choose how their applications are launched.
E.Select UNCOMPRESSED in the "Create a Windows Installer" option.
F.Select use of Kerberos Authentication in combination with Security Support Provider Interface.
Correct:B E

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NO.5 Scenario: An administrator plans on deploying a CPU-intensive application and has
determined that CPU Utilization Management should be implemented. Based on testing, the
administrator expects to maximize each server at 40 users with the assumption that only this
application is being deployed. What will be the approximate CPU slice that would be allocated to
each user?
A.2%
B.3%
C.4%
D.5%
Correct:A

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NO.6 Scenario: An environment consists of all expert-level computer users. Therefore, the
administrator feels comfortable allowing users to access resources through an interface from
their desktops, which they can use to configure options. Navigating through the interface should
be easy, as users will be expected to not only be able to do this but also understand the
implications of any changes they make. Which client is most appropriate for this environment?
A.Client for Web
B.Access Gateway
C.Program Neighborhood
D.Program Neighborhood Agent
Correct:C

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NO.7 Scenario: A company has a Citrix Presentation Server 4.0 on Windows Server 2003
implementation and will upgrade to Citrix Presentation Server 4.5. The administrator must migrate
the current farm while preserving the current custom configuration settings. Which type of
installation should the administrator follow?
A.The automatic upgrade path, choosing custom settings in the autorun installations
B.The automatic upgrade path, accepting the default settings in the autorun installations
C.The phased migration path, joining a server running Citrix Presentation Server 4.5 on Windows Server
2003 to the current farm and acquiring the configuration settings
D.The phased migration path, installing Citrix Presentation Server 4.5 on a server running on Windows
Server 2003 independent of the current farm and manually configuring the custom settings
Correct:B

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NO.8 Which two steps are required when using Active Directory to deploy client packages to
Windows 2000 Professional clients? (Choose two.)
A.Assign the package to a user or group of users.
B.Assign the package to a computer or to a group of computers.
C.Go to a command line on the client device and type GPUPDATE /FORCE.
D.Restart the client machine to allow the Active Directory Group Policy to automatically install the client.
Correct:B D

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NO.9 Scenario: A published application requires an explicit IP address for each of its 200 concurrent
clients for licensing purposes. The administrator decided to achieve this by using Virtual IP
addresses. What should be added to maintain the licensing requirements?
A.The process to the "Virtual Loopback Processes"
B.A new IP address to the Virtual IP Address Configuration
C.The process executable to the Virtual IP Process monitored list
D.A set of IP addresses from a different subnet than the Virtual IP addresses
Correct:C

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NO.10 Scenario: Currently, an administrator does not want to publish resources using the Web
Interface. However, the administrator plans to implement Web Interface at a later time and may
grant access to published resources through the Web Interface at that time. Based on future plans,
which client should be deployed now?
A.Web Client
B.Secure Access Client
C.Program Neighborhood Client
D.Program Neighborhood Agent Client
Correct:C

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NO.11 A new IT policy requires the use of configuration logging. What is the first step the Citrix
Administrator must take to set up configuration logging?
A.Create a configuration logging database
B.Configure a configuration logging database
C.Configure the configuration logging settings
D.Create report specification for configuration logging reports
Correct:A

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NO.12 Scenario: An administrator is installing Presentation Server 4.5. The company requires the use
of the Program Neighborhood Agent as the pass-through client and that users should be explicitly
prompted for authentication to Citrix Presentation Server. Which two steps must the administrator
take during the installation to meet the company's requirements? (Choose two.)
A.Select "no" for pass-through authentication for the pass-through client.
B.Select "yes" for pass-through authentication for the pass-through client.
C.Replace the default Client with the Program Neighborhood Agent as the pass-through client.
D.Specify the URLs of the web server running the Program Neighborhood Agent Services Site.
Correct:A D

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NO.13 Scenario: An administrator notices that there are occasional issues with traffic traversing TCP
port 2512, in the farm running Citrix Presentation Server. Which Health Monitoring and Recovery
test should the administrator configure?
A.Citrix IMA Service
B.Citrix XTE Service
C.Citrix XML Service
D.Terminal Services
Correct:A

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NO.14 Scenario: An administrator enables CPU Optimization for the entire farm. After installing a
CPU-intensive Computer Aided Drawing and Design (CADD) application, several power users ask
how additional CPU may be allocated specifically to them. Which statement is correct?
A.CPU allocation is defined by network bandwidth.
B.CPU allocation can be configured in the registry.
C.The administrator cannot configure CPU allocation.
D.The administrator can configure CPU allocation in the farm properties.
Correct:B

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NO.15 Scenario: During the course of one day, the administrator of a large server farm comprised of a
single zone notices that the IMA Work Item Queue Ready Count metric on the data collector for the
zone has repeatedly been just above zero. The data collector supports 50 servers and hosts 10
productivity applications. There is no backup data collector configured for the zone. There is one
server that only has one proprietary application suite published. This proprietary application suite
is only used by the Finance department but is mission critical for that department. Which two
actions would best address the needs of the environment described in this scenario? (Choose
two.)
A.Restart the IMA service on the data collector.
B.Increase the preference of one of the 50 servers to Preferred status.
C.Increase the preference of the server hosting the proprietary application suite to Most Preferred status.
D.Add the registry key entry MaxHostAddressCacheEntries to the data collector for the zone and set it to
50.
E.Dedicate the existing data collector by removing the productivity applications from the server and
setting it to Most Preferred status.
Correct:B E

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NO.16 Which benefit is the result of enabling Memory Optimization?
A.Memory is allocated to each user proportionately.
B.Each server can more efficiently initiate applications.
C.Memory is dynamically reallocated based on specific user need.
D.The administrator controls the maximum amount of memory per user.
Correct:B

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NO.17 Scenario: Administrators currently have the Health Monitoring and Recovery test relating to
logons enabled to alert them in the event of a failure. Server "CPS14" has alerted them many times
today, and they are aware of the problem but do not have time to remedy this issue until tomorrow.
Which configuration change should the administrative staff make?
A.Set the server properties to reboot the server if the Logon test fails.
B.Set the server farm properties to reboot the server if the Logon test fails.
C.Set the server properties to remove the server from load balancing if the test fails.
D.Set the server farm properties to remove the server from load balancing if the test fails.
Correct:C

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NO.18 Which two Health Monitoring and Recovery tests are enabled by default? (Choose two.)
A.Citrix IMA Service
B.Citrix XML Service
C.Citrix SMA Service
D.Citrix XTE Server Service
Correct:A B

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NO.19 Which step is required to obtain the license file when implementing Citrix Presentation Server
4.5 after installing the Citrix License Server?
A.Download the license file from MyCitrix.com and upload it to the License Management Console through
the License Files node.
B.Download the license file from MyCitrix.com and upload it to the License Management Console through
the File Locations node.
C.Download the license code from MyCitrix.com and enter it in the License Management Console through
the License Files node.
D.Download the license code from MyCitrix.com and enter it in the License Management Console through
the File Locations node.
Correct:A

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NO.20 Scenario: An administrator installs a new database application that uses a .ZTC extension for its
data files on servers running Presentation Server. The .ZTC extension does not show as a file type
association option when attempting to publish the application. Why is .ZTC not listed as a file type
association when publishing applications?
A.The servers that host the application have not been rebooted.
B.The file type association function is not supported for that extension.
C.The administrator has not run the "Update from registry..." option from the console.
D.The administrator is attempting to publish the application to a server that does not have the application
installed.
Correct:C

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-A04
Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Gateway 8.1.Enterprise Edition: Administration)
Questions et réponses: 101 Q&As

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NO.1 Scenario: An administrator created a new Access Gateway virtual server. The administrator did NOT
bind any session policies to the virtual server. What is the default authorization action for users logging in
to this virtual server?
A. ALLOW, this is the default behavior.
B. ALLOW, but place users in a quarantine group.
C. DENY, the default authentication policy must be applied.
D. DENY, either a session policy or a traffic policy must exist.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An IT manager instructed the network administrator to separate the Access Gateway appliance in an
environment from the Web Interface server using a firewall that performs Network Address
Translation (NAT).Which two access methods could be configured for Access Gateway 8.1, Enterprise
Edition based on the requirements of this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Direct
B. Translated
C. Gateway Direct
D. Gateway Alternate
E. Gateway Translated
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 Scenario: A network administrator needs to configure access to published resources in a Citrix XenApp
farm through Access Gateway. The administrator has been instructed to implement Access Gateway as a
replacement for the current Secure Gateway deployment which does NOT have SmartAccess. Which
three steps does the administrator need to take to meet these requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Set NT Domain
B. Set ICA Proxy to ON
C. Configure split tunneling
D. Configure the Secure Ticket Authority server
E. Set the Access Gateway home page to the Web Interface URL
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 Scenario: An administrator configuring Access Gateway 8.1, Enterprise Edition in an environment that
consists of a double-hop DMZ deployment wants connections from the Citrix XepApp Plugin for Hosted
Apps on the Internet to go through the first firewall in order to connect to the Access Gateway appliance in
the first DMZ. Which port should the administrator enable on the first firewall?
A. 80
B. 389
C. 443
D. 1494
E. 1812
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator has enabled split tunneling for an environment. What must the administrator do to
ensure that the plugin on user devices intercepts intranet traffic only and routes other traffic directly to the
appropriate servers?
A. Set split tunneling to OFF
B. Define an intranet application
C. Change the routing table on the client devices to tunnel intranet traffic to the intranet
D. Assign intranet IP addresses to resources that users are accessing through the Access
Gateway appliance
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which option in the Configuration Utility allows an administrator to limit the number of users who can log
in to an Access Gateway 8.1, Enterprise Edition environment?
A. Select Access Gateway > Virtual Servers, Maximum Users
B. Select Systems > Virtual Servers > Policies, Maximum Users
C. Select Systems > Connections > Authentication settings, Maximum number of users
D. Select Access Gateway > Global > Authentication settings, Maximum number of users
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three kinds of IP addresses are required at a minimum when setting up an Access Gateway
appliance in an environment? (Choose three.)
A. Intranet
B. Mapped
C. NetScaler
D. DNS Server
E. Default gateway
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.8 Scenario: Employees connect to the corporate network remotely using devices that are running
Windows, Mac and Linux operating systems. The administrator in this environment is configuring Access
Gateway 8.1, Enterprise Edition and has been instructed by the IT Manager to ensure that remote users
have uniform access to the environment regardless of the operating system running on their client
devices. Which plugin should the administrator deploy or require employees to obtain in order to access
this environment?
A. CitrixXenApp plugin
B. Citrix Access GatewayPlugin for Java
C. Citrix Access GatewayPlugin for ActiveX
D. Citrix Access GatewayPlugin for Windows
Answer: B

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NO.9 DRAG DROP
When using the Access Gateway Configuration Utility to create a new Authentication Server for RADIUS
authentication, some fields represented in the Configuration Utility window are required. Of the possible
choices on the left, drag the correct selections to the boxes on the right. There are three correct choices.
Answer:

NO.10 An administrator for Access Gateway 8.1, Enterprise Edition suspects that some users in the
environment are misusing the remote access granted to them by accessing and downloading some
restricted intranet web resources. What should the administrator check first on the Access Gateway
appliance in order to investigate these users' remote access behavior?
A. Audit logs
B. Network traces
C. Statistic counters
D. Client sidedebug trace files
Answer: A

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NO.11 Scenario: A consultant of a new Access Gateway 8.1, Enterprise Edition deployment at a customer site,
was given the following information and IP addresses to use when configuring the Access Gateway
appliance:
* Internal Citrix XenApp server 4.0 IP address: 192.168.100.12
* Time Zone to be used: Eastern Standard Time (EST)
* IP addresses to be used when configuring the Access Gateway 8.1 Enterprise Edition
deployment
NSIP: 10.165.30.45
MIP: 10.165.30.60
VIP: 12.15.30.62
Which two options should be configured on the Access Gateway appliance in order to
communicate with the Citrix XenApp server? (Choose two.)
A. Subnet IP in the 192.168.100.x subnet
B. Intranet IP in the 192.168.100.x subnet
C. Static Route to the 192.168.100.x subnet
D. Virtual Server in the 192.168.100.x subnet
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 Scenario: An administrator wants users to be able to access resources running on file servers and
application servers in an environment. The administrator has deployed Access Gateway 8.1, Enterprise
Edition. The Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows is used to establish connections to the corporate
network. There are no intranet applications configured in this environment and split tunneling is turned off.
The default authorization policy is set to "Deny."Users in this environment will be able to access
applications on file and application servers as long as _______. (Choose the correct phrase to complete
the sentence.)
A. they can authenticate on the Access Gateway appliance
B. an authorization policy is configured to grant them access
C. internal resources have been assigned specific intranet IP addresses
D. internal resources in this environment have been configured as published applications
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the required procedure to configure a functioning Link Aggregation (LA) channel?
A. Configure the interface, configure the LA channel and then enable the LA channel
B. Configure the LA channel, configure the interface and then enable the LA channel
C. Configure the LA channel, enable the LA channel and then configure the interface and enable the
interfaces
D. Configure the interface, enable the interfaces and then configure the LA channel and enable the LA
channel
Answer: D

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NO.14 Scenario: Dual-source authentication is configured on the Access Gateway 8.1, Enterprise Edition
appliance. The appropriate group extraction configuration is configured on both the primary and
secondary authentication servers, and a user named "User1" exists on both authentication servers. How
will groups be extracted for user "User1?"
A. Only the groups in the secondary authentication server will be extracted and matched to the group
names configured on the primary authentication server.
B. Only the groups from the primary authentication server will be extracted and matched to the group
names configured on the secondary authentication server.
C. The applicable groups from both the primary and secondary authentication servers will be extracted
and matched to the group names configured on the appliance.
D. The groups from the primary authentication server will be extracted and matched to the group names
configured on the secondary authentication server by the administrator.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Scenario: A major technology company wants to upgrade their current Access Gateway
deployment to ensure that it meets their growing remote access needs as they acquire new companies.
Currently, the company is supporting nearly 3,000 concurrent users on their existing Access Gateway
virtual server. Due to a recent merger, the company expects the concurrent user sessions through Access
Gateway to increase by 40% over the next year. Which Access Gateway appliance platform series
handles the most concurrent user traffic and would be appropriate for this company?
A. 2000
B. 7000
C. 10000
D. 11000
Answer: C

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NO.16 An administrator has been instructed to give a specific employee in the Finance group access to
Engineering resources. To which level should the administrator assign the policy when configuring access
for this employee?
A. User
B. Team
C. Group
D. Organization
E. Virtual server
Answer: A

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NO.17 An administrator wants to configure an IP address that will be used by the Access Gateway appliance
as a source IP address to connect to internal servers on the corporate network. Which IP type must be
configured by the administrator?
A. Virtual IP
B. Mapped IP
C. NetScaler IP
D. Global Server Load Balancing site IP
Answer: B

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NO.18 In a deployment where the internal servers are NOT accessible by the mapped IP or through the default
router, how many IP addresses are needed for the Access Gateway implementation?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.19 What must be bound to an Access Gateway virtual server in order for it to show an "UP" state in the
Configuration Utility and for it to be available to accept VPN connections?
A. A session policy
B. A Next-Hop server
C. An authentication policy
D. A valid server certificate
Answer: D

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NO.20 Scenario: A network administrator is planning the remote access infrastructure for an Access Gateway
8.1, Enterprise Edition environment. In this environment, employees, vendors and customers will need to
use different methods of authentication. The administrator would like to ensure that each authentication is
hosted on a separate server. Which authentication method must the administrator implement when
configuring this environment?
A. Cascading
B. Client-Based
C. Server-Based
D. Double-source
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-740
Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix WANScaler 4.2: Administration Exam)
Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

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NO.1 What should an administrator do to ensure that traffic is sent to the desired appliance when
configuring WANScaler appliances in group mode?
A.Turn one of the appliances off in the group mode.
B.Assign the virtual IP address to the primary appliance.
C.Create forwarding rules that use explicit IP addresses.
D.Create a service class policy to manage the distribution of traffic.
Answer:C

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NO.2 When data is compressed before passing through a WANScaler appliance, it __________.
(Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A.is not encrypted
B.is still compressed
C.is passed through as unaccelerated traffic
D.is decompressed and recompressed using proprietary algorithms
Answer:B

Citrix   1Y0-740   1Y0-740   1Y0-740   1Y0-740 examen

NO.3 An administrator is implementing WANScaler appliances in an environment. The administrator
has been instructed to configure WANScaler appliances to accelerate traffic. What are three types
of traffic that can be accelerated by WANScaler appliances? (Choose three.)
A.SIP
B.FTP
C.NFS
D.CIFS
E.TFTP
Answer:B C D

Citrix   1Y0-740   1Y0-740   1Y0-740 examen   certification 1Y0-740

NO.4 Scenario: An administrator is implementing a WANScaler appliance in the branch office of a
telemarketing environment. Most of the traffic in this environment is voice over IP based. However,
the billing and collections team needs access to web servers in the corporate office. Users in this
environment have complained that it takes too long for them to access data in the morning,
between 9:00 AM and 10:30 AM. Coincidentally, this is when most of the billing and collections
employees begin their day. Which traffic type could the administrator accelerate in this
environment?
A.FTP
B.UDP
C.HTTP
D.Telnet
Answer:C

Citrix   1Y0-740   1Y0-740

NO.5 Scenario: An administrator is instructed to implement two WANScaler appliances in high
availability mode for a virtual inline deployment. In this environment, the switches and routers are
already connected. What is the minimum number of Ethernet cables required to set up the
WANScaler appliances in a single LAN, single WAN deployment?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer:B

Citrix examen   1Y0-740   1Y0-740   1Y0-740

NO.6 Which three operating parameters are defined in the TCP header of a packet and exchanged
during the autoconfiguration process? (Choose three.)
A.Bandwidth limits
B.Acceleration mode
C.Service class rules
D.Compression mode
E.Compression history
Answer:A B D

Citrix   1Y0-740   1Y0-740 examen   1Y0-740

NO.7 Scenario: A system administrator deployed a WANScaler 8500 appliance at one branch office
and a WANScaler 8800 appliance at the headquarters office. Given the nature of the data transfers
that are routinely used between the two offices (including database replication, multiple file
transfers and directory synchronization), the administrator decides to use disk-based
compression. After several days of testing, the administrator could not explain why the
compression ratio was below the expected level. What are four possible reasons why the
compression ratio was below the expected level? (Choose four.)
A.Compression ratios are data-dependent.
B.The WANScaler is not suited for compressing CIFS traffic.
C.File types with little to no redundancy will not compress well.
D.WANScaler appliances must be deployed as matched pairs.
E.Encryption of the data has a negative effect on compressibility.
F.Compressibility of data is affected by the application protocol used.
G.The WANScaler 8500 appliance does not support disk-based compression.
Answer:A C E F

Citrix examen   certification 1Y0-740   1Y0-740

NO.8 Scenario: An administrator would like to implement five WANScaler appliances in an
environment. Four of the appliances are deployed in the branch offices and one in the data center.
Each office has a single circuit to the data center. All appliances will be implemented in inline
mode. The administrator wants to leverage the automatic bandwidth allocation feature. The
administrator has decided that WANScaler QoS will not be implemented in this environment.
Which physical WANScaler topology will be appropriate for this implementation?
A.Mesh
B.Full Mesh
C.Point-to-point
D.Hub-and-spoke
Answer:D

certification Citrix   1Y0-740   1Y0-740 examen   1Y0-740

NO.9 Scenario: An administrator is implementing a WANScaler appliance in an environment where the
majority of the traffic types are candidates for acceleration. There is an undetermined amount of
critical unaccelerated traffic that needs to be considered. Which two options should the
administrator implement to ensure that unaccelerated network traffic types are not suppressed in
this environment? (Choose two.)
A.Select hardboost.
B.Select partial bandwidth.
C.Fix the bandwidth limit to 50%.
D.Set the initial bandwidth to 90%.
Answer:B D

Citrix examen   1Y0-740   1Y0-740

NO.10 Which TCP variant would be appropriate in an environment where a site is connected to multiple
WAN links, each of which has no guaranteed bandwidth?
A.Inline
B.Variable
C.Softboost
D.Hardboost
E.Full bandwidth
Answer:C

Citrix   certification 1Y0-740   1Y0-740 examen   1Y0-740

NO.11 Scenario: An administrator designing a WANScaler implementation would like the
implementation to be set up based on the following considerations: 1.The data center supports
multiple branch offices, of which only one has a WANScaler appliance. 2.The branch office
WANScaler appliance should connect directly to the WAN router for the branch office. 3.The
headquarters WANScaler appliance should connect directly to the WAN router for the
headquarters. 4.All traffic from the branch office to servers at the headquarters should flow
through the branch office WANScaler appliance. Which WANScaler deployment topology should
be used in this type of implementation?
A.Star
B.Token Ring
C.Point-to-point
D.Hub-and-spoke
Answer:C

Citrix   certification 1Y0-740   certification 1Y0-740   1Y0-740

NO.12 An administrator is implementing a WANScaler appliance in WCCP mode in a single LAN,
single WAN implementation. What is the minimum number of Ethernet cables required to set up
the WANScaler appliance on the local LAN?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer:A

Citrix   1Y0-740   1Y0-740 examen

NO.13 During the TCP handshake process, the Maximum Segment Size (MSS) of a packet is reduced
in order to __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A.increase interactive performance
B.compress the traffic across the WAN
C.allow room in the packet header for custom WANScaler options
D.indicate the existence of a WANScaler appliance to other WANScaler appliances across the WAN
Answer:C

Citrix examen   1Y0-740   1Y0-740 examen   1Y0-740

NO.14 Which two techniques are used to accelerate and optimize CIFS traffic across high latency
links in a WANScaler appliance implementation? (Choose two.)
A.Zero locking
B.File read ahead
C.History analysis
D.Recursive file opens
E.Pre-fetching metadata
Answer:B E

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NO.15 Which two statements are true regarding protocol acceleration? (Choose two.)
A.VoIP optimization is an indirect benefit of other optimizations of the WANScaler.
B.All HTTP traffic is enhanced by applying QoS on cascading style sheets and pages that use Java
scripts.
C.IPSec key exchange algorithms are adjusted with the Flow-Control Engine and their payloads are
compressed.
D.FTP traffic is enhanced by the ability of the WANScaler appliance to keep track of which files have been
previously transferred.
E.Any TCP information exchanged by two WANScaler appliances where the bit patterns exchanged
match previous traffic can be eligible for multi-level compression.
Answer:A E

certification Citrix   1Y0-740 examen   1Y0-740   1Y0-740 examen

NO.16 An administrator implementing WANScaler appliances in an appliance only environment has
been instructed by the IT Manager to not bring down the network while installing the WANScaler
appliances. In which two deployment modes could the administrator implement the WANScaler
appliances to meet the stated requirements? (Choose two.)
A.Inline
B.WCCP
C.Redirector
D.Virtual inline
Answer:B D

Citrix examen   1Y0-740 examen   1Y0-740

NO.17 An administrator would like to implement a WANScaler appliance as depicted in the attached
diagram. Click the 'Exhibit' button to view the diagram. In which deployment mode will the
WANScaler appliance be implemented in this environment?
A.Inline
B.WCCP
C.Point-to-point
D.Virtual inline with policy-based routing
Answer:D

certification Citrix   1Y0-740   certification 1Y0-740   1Y0-740

NO.18 The __________ is where the set of rules that map accelerated subnets to appliances is created
and the __________ is what examines the rules. (Choose the correct option to complete the
sentence.)
A.Client; Controller
B.Client; Appliance
C.Controller; Client
D.Controller; Appliance
Answer:C

Citrix   1Y0-740   1Y0-740   1Y0-740

NO.19 A WANScaler implementation of QoS __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the
sentence.)
A.should be used with softboost only
B.operates on accelerated traffic only
C.is incompatible with other QoS solutions
D.is a sender and receiver-side QoS system
Answer:B

certification Citrix   1Y0-740   1Y0-740   1Y0-740

NO.20 In a high availability pair, configuration changes should be made using which IP address?
A.Virtual IP address
B.Subnet IP address
C.WANScaler IP address
D.Management IP address
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-A15
Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Engineering a Citrix Virtualization Solution)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Answer:

NO.2 Which two statements highlight risks that a Citrix Engineer should investigate and potentially resolve
when implementing a XenApp environment? (Choose two.)
A. A custom load evaluator is being used with several application silos.
B. A separate zone within the production farm is being used for testing.
C. XML traffic from the Web Interface to the XML Brokers is being encrypted.
D. A Citrix policy exists that effectively disables users from installing drivers over ICA sessions in the
environment.
E. Users in the Nether Tech Inc. environment have the ability to install printer drivers on the XenApp
servers through their ICA sessions.
Answer: BE

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NO.3 Scenario: After gathering basic requirements from Nether Tech Inc. administrators and IT personnel, an
engineer must decide whether a virtual or physical implementation is best suited for the environment.
Several key requirements are listed below.
Peak time is gam; approximately 4,000-4,500 logon attempts will be made then.
Most users will have the same core applications such as Microsoft Office and Adobe Reader.
Some custom applications need to be updated quarterly.
Remote users and traveling field agents will need secure remote access to the environment.
Several applications in the environment CANNOT co-exist together.
Some applications will NOT run on an application server.
Based on these requirements, which kind of implementation should the engineer recommend?
A. A virtualized implementation that leverages XenOesktop Platinum
B. A physical server farm that leverages XenApp on physical servers
C. A physical server farm that leverages XenApp and Provisioning Services
D. A virtualized server implementation that leverages XenServer and XenApp
Answer: A

Citrix   1Y0-A15   1Y0-A15   1Y0-A15   1Y0-A15

NO.4 Scenario: A Citrix Enterprise engineer is tasked with deploying XenDesktop pooled desktops for an
insurance company with 10 remote users using Provisioning Services. The design document requires
write cache to use RAM for better performance. The engineer determines that the target device does NOT
have enough memory to support the write cache, but there is NO option to add more RAM.
The engineer's recommendation should be to change Provisioning Services vDisk . (Choose the correct
phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. access mode to Private Image
B. access mode to Difference Disk Image
C. cache type to Cache on device HD in Private Image Access Mode
D. cache type to Cache on device HD in Standard Image Access Mode
Answer: D

Citrix   1Y0-A15 examen   1Y0-A15 examen   1Y0-A15   1Y0-A15

NO.5 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer implementing the new virtualization design for Nether Tech Inc. must
configure XenApp for dynamic delivery by using Provisioning Services. Provisioning Services already
exists in the environment; however, due to company policies, neither using OHCP nor modifying the
OHCP scope options to include options 66 and 67 or using PXE are possible.
Which configuration method should the engineer recommend in order for the virtual XenApp servers to
boot from their assigned vOisk?
A. TFTP Service
B. 800t from SAN
C. 800t Device Manager (80M)
D. Static IP Address Assignment
Answer: C

Citrix   1Y0-A15   1Y0-A15 examen   1Y0-A15 examen   1Y0-A15

NO.6 Scenario: The engineer at Nether Tech Inc. is assigned an implementation of Provisioning Services for
delivery of images to its XenApp servers and XenDesktop workstations. The architect has created the
design for the Provisioning Services environment and took the following design decisions:
One Provisioning Services farm will be created: PVSFARM.
Two Provisioning Services servers will be configured with HA: PVS01 and PVS02. One site will be
configured: Nether Tech Inc.
Two device collections will be configured: one for XenApp servers and one for XenDesktop devices.
A central store will be defined and located on the SAN and all vDisks will be added to this store.
Online and offline applications will be used to minimize changes to the vDisk.
A specified user account will be used for Provisioning Services service account. The TFTP service
will be installed on PVS01.
DHCP will be configured with options 66 and 67 to point to PVS01.
An Active Directory group policy object will be configured and linked to the XenApp and XenDesktop
organizations units to disable Active Directory Machine Account Password Management.
What will be a risk for the new environment based on the design decisions from the architect?
A. There is only one store configured for both XenApp and XenDesktop.
B. TFTP via DHCP is being used and TFTP is only installed on PVSO 1.
C. The PXE service is NOT being used to provide boot information to target devices.
D. The target devices for XenApp and XenDesktop are in separate device collections.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Scenario: The new design document for Nether Tech Inc.'s environment calls for the inclusion of
several new Citrix products in addition to XenApp. XenServer will be implemented as the virtualization
platform. Provisioning Services will be used to rapidly provision desktop and server images. XenOesktop
will be used to publish and manage client desktops. Nether Tech Inc.'s existing environment consists of a
OHCP server, a ONS server, a domain controller, several managed switches with spanning tree protocol
and several routers.
Which modification should the Citrix Engineer recommend from a networking standpoint in order for all of
the new Citrix products to be highly optimized?
A. Enable task offload on the virtual machine.
B. Place each Citrix component in its own subnet.
C. Configure the DHCP server to use ports 60 and 67.
D. Enable the spanning tree fast link (PortFast) option on all Provisioning Services switch ports.
Answer: D

Citrix   1Y0-A15 examen   1Y0-A15

NO.8 Scenario: The new design document for Nether Tech Inc. requires that the Citrix Engineer perform the
following:
1. Upgrade from Presentation Server 4.0 to XenApp 5.0 for Windows Server 2008.
2. Integrate the XenApp 5.0 environment with the existing XenDesktop solution, which includes
Provisioning Services.
The engineer has successfully completed the upgrade to XenApp 5.0 for Windows Server 2008 and must
now implement the second stage of the design by integrating the XenApp 5.0 farm into the XenDesktop
environment so that published applications can be accessed from within the XenDesktop virtual desktops.
The engineer has just created a XenApp Services Web Interface site that enumerates applications from
the XenApp 5.0 farm.
Which additional steps must the engineer take to integrate the existing XenApp 5.0 farm into the
XenDesktop environment?
Click the Task button to drag and drop the steps in the correct order. Click the Exhibit button for
instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
Answer:

NO.9 Scenario: Nether Tech Inc. is planning to implement Provisioning Services for deployment of images to
their XenApp servers and XenDesktop workstations. The architect has created the design for the
Provisioning Services environment, making the following design decisions for the Provisioning Services
environment:
One Provisioning Services farm will be created: PVSFARM.
Two Provisioning Services servers will be installed and configured for High Availability: PVS01 and
PVS02. One site will be created: Nether Tech Inc.
Two Device Collections will be configured: XenApp and XenDesktop.
A central store will be defined and located on the SAN; all vDisks will be added to this store. The local
hard drive of the XenApp servers will be used to store the write cache.
TCP Large Send Offload will be enabled on the NICs.
A specified user account will be used as Provisioning Services service account.
Each Provisioning Services server will have four NICs; two teamed and connected with the "General
use subnet" (per the design document) and the other two NICs, disabled.
An Active Directory group policy object (GPO) will be configured and linked to the XenApp and
XenDesktop organizational units to disable Active Directory Machine Account Password
Management.
Online and offline applications will be used to minimize changes to the vDisk.
Offline applications will be pre-deployed to desktops and XenApp servers for faster access to the
applications by users.
According to the design decisions from the architect, which decision does NOT follow best practices?
A. One site will be created.
B. TCP Large Send Offload will be enabled on the NICs.
C. The local hard drive of the XenApp servers is used to store the write cache.
D. Online and offline applications will be used to minimize changes to the vDisk.
E. Offline applications will be pre-deployed to desktops and XenApp servers for faster access to the
application by users.
Answer: B

Citrix   certification 1Y0-A15   certification 1Y0-A15   1Y0-A15 examen   certification 1Y0-A15   1Y0-A15 examen

NO.10 Which three items are risks that a Citrix Enterprise Engineer should be aware of during the
implementation phase ofaXenApp project? (Choose three.)
A. Improper load evaluator configuration
B. Inconsistent server naming convention
C. Improper terminal server profile design
D. Inconsistent user account naming convention
E. Mixed brands of user devices running XenApp Plugin
F. Inconsistent set of printer drivers across the environment
Answer: ACF

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-A26
Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix XenServer 6.0 Administration)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Scenario: An administrator notices a duplex mismatch on the network interface card (NIC) which is
configured as the management interface. The administrator realizes that the switch was set to 100 full,
but XenServer auto-configured the NIC to 100 half, autoneg=on. How can the administrator ensure the
XenServer host does NOT auto-configure the NIC in the future?
A. Change the NIC properties in the xsconsole.
B. Use the xe pif-configure-ip command to disable auto-configuration.
C. Use the xe pif-param-set command to set other-config:ethtool-autoneg=off.
D. Assign a new NIC to the management interface within the XenCenter Network tab.
Answer: C

Citrix   1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26

NO.2 Scenario: An administrator needs to upgrade the memory of a XenServer host. Business requirements
state that this task can only be done during business hours. Which two steps must the administrator take
before shutting down a XenServer host in an environment that has high availability enabled without
affecting performance? (Choose two.)
A. Disable the host.
B. Evacuate the host.
C. Reset the pool master.
D. Disable high availability.
Answer: AB

Citrix examen   1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26 examen   1Y0-A26 examen

NO.3 Scenario: In an environment with high availability enabled, an administrator discovered that a host is
unreachable in a XenServer pool. The administrator disabled high availability in order to make the host
reachable. Which xe CLI command can the administrator run to make the host reachable again?
A. host-disable
B. host-evacuate
C. pool-designate-new-master
D. pool-emergency-reset-master
Answer: D

Citrix   1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26 examen

NO.4 What must be true in order to integrate Active Directory authentication with a XenServer host?
A. LDAP port 389 is open for inbound traffic to the XenServer host.
B. The Active Directory administrator account is created locally on the XenServer host.
C. The same DNS server is used for both the Active Directory server and the XenServer host.
D. RAS authentication is used for communication between the Active Directory server and the XenServer
host.
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator is setting up the XenServer hosts in an environment to boot from SAN. In which BIOS
would the administrator go to enable XenServer to boot from SAN.?
A. Host
B. Array controller
C. Network interface card
D. Primary host bus adapter
Answer: D

Citrix   certification 1Y0-A26   certification 1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26

NO.6 Scenario: An administrator configured XenServer Role Based Access Control (RBAC) to authenticate
using Active Directory. Using RBAC, the administrator must grant Level 2 Support users with permission
to start and stop virtual machines. Which two steps must the administrator take to grant Level 2 Support
users virtual machine permissions? (Choose two.)
A. Assign a role to the subject.
B. Add an Active Directory group to the pool.
C. Assign XenServer permissions to a group.
D. Add users and their roles to the authorized list of users.
Answer: AB

certification Citrix   1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26 examen

NO.7 An administrator is planning to apply an update that has already been downloaded to a XenServer host
in production. What is the next step that the administrator needs to take in the update process?
A. Restart the host.
B. Generate the UUID for the patch.
C. Specify the UUIDs of the host and the patch.
D. Shut down, suspend or migrate the virtual machines running on the host.
Answer: D

Citrix   1Y0-A26   certification 1Y0-A26   certification 1Y0-A26

NO.8 An administrator needs to export a virtual machine to an NFS share mounted on a XenServer host.
Which xe CLI command does the administrator need to execute from a remote machine to perform the
virtual machine export?
A. xe vm-export -h <hostname> filename=<pathname_of_file>
B. xe vm-export -h <hostname> -u <root> -pw <password> vm=<vm_name>
C. xe vm-export -h <hostname> -u <root> -pw <password> filename=<pathname_of_file>
D. xe vm-export -h <hostname> -u <root> -pw <password> vm=<vm_name>
filename=<pathname_of_file>
Answer: D

Citrix   1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26 examen   1Y0-A26 examen

NO.9 When starting up a XenServer from SAN, the BIOS of the ___________ contains the instructions that
enable the host to find the boot disk. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. host machine
B. array controller
C. host bus adapter
D. network interface card
Answer: C

Citrix   1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26

NO.10 Scenario: An administrator is planning to introduce 100 new virtual machines into the environment.
The administrator plans to use XenServer templates and duplication mechanisms. What must the
administrator consider when deciding between the full copy and fast clone duplication mechanisms?
A. A template needs to be copied before it can be fast cloned.
B. A virtual machine that is duplicated using the full copy method may impact disk performance.
C. A virtual machine that is duplicated using the fast cloned method may impact disk performance.
D. A template created on local storage can be duplicated by using the full copy method by any host in the
pool.
Answer: C

certification Citrix   1Y0-A26   certification 1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26   certification 1Y0-A26

NO.11 An administrator needs to authenticate all users when they log into the XenServer pool using their
Windows credentials. What is the first step the administrator must take to achieve this?
A. Join the XenServer pool to the domain.
B. Add each user to the Users tab in XenCenter.
C. Create a XenServer user group within Active Directory.
D. Create Active Directory accounts for the XenServer users.
Answer: A

Citrix examen   certification 1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26

NO.12 Scenario: An administrator is adding a new host to a XenServer resource pool. XenServer is already
installed on the host, but the NTP server settings are configured incorrectly on the host. Which file can the
administrator edit to adjust the NTP server settings on the new XenServer host?
A. /etc/ntp.conf
B. /etc/ntp/keys
C. /etc/init.d/ntpd
D. /etc/ntp/step-tickers
Answer: A

Citrix   certification 1Y0-A26   certification 1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26 examen   1Y0-A26 examen   1Y0-A26 examen

NO.13 An administrator needs to run commands to specify __________ to configure email alerts at the host
level. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. alarm_priority on the host
B. alarm_priority on the virtual machine
C. the sender email address and SMTP server
D. the recipient email address and SMTP server
Answer: D

certification Citrix   1Y0-A26 examen   1Y0-A26 examen   1Y0-A26 examen

NO.14 Scenario: An administrator is unable to connect to a resource pool in a XenServer environment in
which high availability is enabled. The administrator discovers that the host is unreachable. What does
the administrator need to do to recover the host?
A. Run the pool-disable command, then the host-shutdown command and then restart the host.
B. Run the pool-disable command, then run the pool-emergency-reset-master command and restart the
host.
C. Run the emergency-ha-disable command, then once the host is restarted, run the pool-ha-enable
command.
D. Run the host-evacuate command, then restart the host and run the pool-emergency-transition-to-
master command.
Answer: C

Citrix   1Y0-A26 examen   1Y0-A26   certification 1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26

NO.15 Scenario: An administrator is moving a XenServer host from the New York datacenter to the London
datacenter. During the installation of XenServer, the default NTP settings were selected. How must the
administrator ensure that the XenServer host has the correct time settings?
A. Configure the time in the host BIOS.
B. Configure the time zone in the ntp.conf file.
C. Change the time zone using the xsconsole.
D. Change the NTP servers to the London NTP servers.
Answer: C

Citrix   1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26 examen

NO.16 Scenario: To improve performance and increase security, a network team will be moving all XenServer
hosts into a more secure, and high resiliency subnet. The administrator must now change the subnet
mask on all XenServer hosts to match the new network: 172.16.0.0/16. Which command will the
administrator need to execute on each host?
A. xe pif-reconfigure-ip uuid= mode=dhcp netmask=255.255.0.0
B. xe pif-reconfigure-ip uuid= mode=static netmask=255.255.0.0
C. xe pif-reconfigure-ip uuid= mode=dhcp netmask=172.16.0.0/16
D. xe pif-reconfigure-ip uuid= mode=static netmask=172.16.0.0/16
Answer: B

certification Citrix   1Y0-A26   certification 1Y0-A26

NO.17 An administrator cloned a template into a virtual machine and then converted it back into a template.
Which action must be performed on the disks to restore expected levels of disk performance?
A. Run SysPrep
B. Complete a full copy
C. Execute a fast clone
D. Suspend before cloning
Answer: B

Citrix   1Y0-A26 examen   1Y0-A26 examen   certification 1Y0-A26   certification 1Y0-A26

NO.18 An administrator needs to apply an update to a XenServer pool, but needs to control the update path
and the virtual machine migration. What does the administrator need to do to achieve this?
A. Update all hosts in the pool using the xe CLI.
B. Use the Install Update wizard to update the pool.
C. Update each host individually starting with the pool master.
D. Select manual update mode when updating the pool in XenCenter.
Answer: C

Citrix   certification 1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26

NO.19 An administrator was given new security rules and now needs to remove specific permissions from the
users in the VM Admin Role Based Access Control group. How can the administrator remove the specific
permissions from the VM Admin user group?
A. Reset the VM Admin user group back to the default permissions.
B. Delete the registry key that applies to the specific permissions that need to be removed.
C. Run the xe subject-role-remove uuid=<subject UUID> role-name=vm.pool_migrate XenServer
command.
D. Remove the specific permissions from the Active Directory user group associated with the VM Admin
user group.
Answer: C

Citrix   certification 1Y0-A26   certification 1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26

NO.20 Scenario: An administrator is planning to upgrade the RAM in a XenServer host. Due to business
restrictions, the host must be shut down during normal business hours. High availability is enabled in the
XenServer resource pool. Which step does the administrator need to take before shutting down the
XenServer host to allow the virtual machines to run after the host is shut down?
A. Disable high availability.
B. Export the virtual machines.
C. Place the host in maintenance mode.
D. Copy the virtual machines to another host.
Answer: C

Citrix   certification 1Y0-A26   1Y0-A26

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Code d'Examen: 156-210
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point CCSA NG)
Questions et réponses: 241 Q&As

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NO.1 Network attacks attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in network applications, rather
than targeting firewalls directly.
What does this require of today's firewalls?
A. Firewalls should provide network-level protection, by inspecting packets all layers of
the OSI model.
B. Firewall should not inspect traffic below the Application Layer of the OSI model,
because such inspection is no longer relevant.
C. Firewalls should understand application behavior, to protect against application
attacks and hazards.
D. Firewalls should provide separate proxy processes for each application accessed
through the firewall.
E. Firewalls should be installed on all Web servers, behind organizations' intranet.
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.2 The SmartDefense Storm Center Module agent receives the Dshield.org Block List,
and:
A. Populates CPDShield with blocked address ranges, every three hours.
B. Generates logs from rules tracking internal traffic.
C. Submits the number of authentication failures, and drops, rejects, and accepts.
D. Generates regular and compact log digest.
E. Populates the firewall daemon with log trails.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210 examen   156-210

NO.3 You are importing product data from modules, during a VPN-1/Firwall-1
Enforcement Module upgrade. Which of the following statements are true? Choose
two.
A. Upgrading a single Enforcement Module is recommended by Check Point, since there
is no chance of mismatch between installed product versions.
B. SmartUpdate queries license information, from the SmartConsole runging locally on the Enforcement
Module.
C. SmartUpdate queries the SmartCenter Server and Enforcement Module for product
information.
D. If SmartDashboard and all SmartConsoles must be open during input, otherwise the
product-data retrieval process will fail
Answer: A, C

CheckPoint   certification 156-210   156-210   156-210   certification 156-210

NO.4 You have created a rule that requires users to be authenticated, when connecting to
the Internet using HTTP. Which is the BEST authentication method for users who
must use specific computers for Internet access?
A. Client
B. Session
C. User
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-210   certification 156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.5 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement an address translation
solution for Certkiller .com.
The solution you choose must meet the following requirements:
1. RFC 1918-compliant internal addresses must be translated to public, external
addresses when packets exit the Enforcement Module.
2. Public, external addresses must be translated to internal, RFC 1918-compliant
addresses when packets enter the Enforcement Module.
Which address translation solution BEST meets your requirements?
A. Hide NAT
B. The requirements cannot be met with any address translation solution.
C. Dynamic NAT
D. IP Pool Nat
E. Static NAT
Answer: E

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-210   156-210   156-210 examen   156-210   156-210

NO.6 Which of the following locations is Static NAT processed by the Enforcement
Module on packets from an external source to an internal statically translated host?
Static NAT occurs.
A. After the inbound kernel, and before routing.
B. After the outbound kernel, and before routing.
C. After the inbound kernel, and aftter routing.
D. Before the inbound kernel, and after routing.
E. Before the outbound kernel, and before routing.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210 examen

NO.7 You are the Security Administrator with one SmartCenter Server managing one
Enforcement Moduel. SmartView Status displayes a computer icon with an "I" in
the Status column. What does this mean?
A. You have entered the wrong password at SmartView Status login.
B. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) has not been established between the
SmartCenter Server and the Enforcement Module.
C. The SmartCenter Server cannot contact a gateway.
D. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module has been compromised and is no longer
controlled by this SmartCenter Sever.
E. The Enforcement Module is installed and responding to status checks, but the status is
problematic.
Answer: E

CheckPoint examen   156-210   156-210 examen   156-210   156-210 examen

NO.8 What function does the Audit mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It tracks detailed information about packets traversing the Enforcement Modules.
B. It maintains a detailed log of problems with VPN-1/FireWall-1 services on the
SmartCenter Server.
C. It is used to maintain a record of the status of each Enforcement Module and
SmartCenter server.
D. It maintains a detailed record of status of each Enforcement Module and SmartCenter
Server.
E. It tracks changes and Security Policy installations, per Security Administrator,
performed in SmartDashboard.
Answer: E

certification CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.9 What function does the Active mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It displays the active Security Policy.
B. It displays active Security Administrators currently logged into a SmartCenter Server.
C. It displays current active connections traversing Enforcement Modules.
D. It displays the current log file, as it is stored on a SmartCenter Server.
E. It displays only current connections between VPN-1/FireWall-1 modules.
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-210 examen   certification 156-210   certification 156-210

NO.10 Hidden (or masked) rules are used to:
A. Hide rules from administrators with lower privileges.
B. View only a few rules, without distraction of others.
C. Temporarily disable rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Temporarily convert specifically defined rules to implied rules.
E. Delete rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-210 examen   156-210

NO.11 Why is Application Layer particularly vulnerable to attacks? Choose three
A. Malicious Java, ActiveX, and VB Scripts can exploit host system simply by browsing.
B. The application Layer performs access-control and legitimate-use checks.
C. Defending against attacks at the Application Layer is more difficult, than at lower
layers of the OSI model.
D. The Application Layer does not perform unauthorized operations.
E. The application Layer supports many protocols.
Answer: A, C, E

CheckPoint examen   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.12 Which of the following statements about Client Authentication is FALSE?
A. In contrast to User Authentication that allows access per user. Client Authentication
allows access per IP address.
B. Client Authentication is more secure than User Authentication, because it allows
multiple users and connections from an authorized IP address or host.
C. Client Authentication enables Security Administrators to grant access privileges to a
specific IP address, after successful authentication.
D. Authentication is by user name and password, but it is the host machine (client) that is
granted access.
E. Client Authentication is not restricted to a limited set of protocols.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-210 examen   certification 156-210   156-210

NO.13 SmartUpdate CANNOT be used to:
A. Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products.
B. Manage licenses centrally.
C. Update installed Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized
location.
D. Uninstall Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized location.
E. Remotely install NG with Application Intelligence for the first time, on a new
machine.
Answer: E

certification CheckPoint   156-210   certification 156-210   156-210

NO.14 Which of the following suggestions regarding Security Policies will NOT improve
performance?
A. If most incoming connections are HTTP, but the rule that accepts HTTP at the bottom
of the Rule Base, before the Cleanup Rule
B. Use a network object, instead of multiple host-node objects.
C. Do not log unnecessary connections.
D. Keep the Rule Base simple.
E. Use IP address-range objects in rules, instead of a set of host-node objects.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   certification 156-210

NO.15 Network topology exhibit
You want hide all localnet and DMZ hosts behind the Enforcemenet Module, except
for the HTTP Server (192.9.200.9). The HTTP Server will be providing public
services, and must be accessible from the Internet.
Select the two BEST Network Address Translation (NAT) solutions for this
scenario,
A. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.0.0
B. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.200.0
C. Use automatic NAT rule creation to hide both DMZ and Local Network.
D. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for privatenet.
E. Use automatic NAT rule creation, to statically translate the HTTP Server address.
Answer: C, E

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.16 A security Administrator wants to review the number of packets accepted by each
of the Enforcement modules. Which of the following viewers is the BEST source for
viewing this information?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartMap
D. SmartView Status
E. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-210   certification 156-210

NO.17 Which of the following is NOT a security benefit of Check Point's Secure Internal
Communications (SIC)?
A. Generates VPN certificates for IKE clients.
B. Allows the Security Administrator to confirm that the Security Policy on an
Enforcement Module came from an authorized Management Server.
C. Confirms that a SmartConsole is authorized to connect a SmartCenter Server
D. Uses SSL for data encryption.
E. Maintains data privacy and integrity.
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.18 Which if the following components functions as the Internal Certificate Authority
for all modules in the VPN-1/FireWall-1 configuration?
A. Enforcement Module
B. INSPECT Engine
C. SmartCenter Server
D. SmartConsole
E. Policy Server
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-210   156-210 examen   156-210 examen   156-210 examen

NO.19 Check Point's NG with Application Intelligence protects against Network and
Transport layer attacks by: (Choose two)
A. Preventing protocol-anomaly detection-
B. Allowing IP fragmentation-
C. Preventing validation of compliance to standards.
D. Preventing non-TCP denial-of-service attacks, and port scanning.
E. Preventing malicious manipulation of Network Layer protocols.
Answer: D, E

CheckPoint   156-210 examen   certification 156-210

NO.20 Once you have installed Secure Internal Communcations (SIC) for a host-node
object and issued a certificate for it. Which of the following can you perform?
Choose two.
A. Rename the object
B. Rename the certificate
C. Edit the object properties
D. Rest SIC
E. Edit the object type
Answer: A, C

CheckPoint   certification 156-210   certification 156-210

NO.21 Which of the following are tasks performed by a VPN-1/FireWall-1 SmartCenter
Server? Choose three.
A. Examines all communications according to the Enterprise Security Policy.
B. Stores VPN-1/FirWall-1 logs.
C. Manages the User Database.
D. Replicates state tables for high availability.
E. Compiles the Rule Base into an enforceable Security Policy.
Answer: B, C, E

CheckPoint examen   156-210   156-210 examen

NO.22 You are administering one SmartCenter Server that manages three Enforcement
Modules. One of the Enforcement Modules does not appear as a target in the Install
Policy screen, when you attempt to install the Security Policy. What is causing this
to happen?
A. The license for the Enforcement Module has expired.
B. The Enforcement Module requires a reboot.
C. The object representing the Enforcement Module was created as a Node->Gateway.
D. The Enforcement Module was not listed in the Install On column of its rule.
E. No Enforcement Module Master filer was created, designating the SmartCenter Server
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-210   certification 156-210   156-210   certification 156-210   156-210 examen

NO.23 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement Hide NAT. You must
justify your decision. Which of the following statements justifies implementing a
Hide NAT solution? Choose two.
A. You have more internal hosts than public IP addresses
B. Your organization requires internal hosts, with RFC 1918-compliant addresses to be
assessable from the Internet.
C. Internally, your organization uses an RFC 1918-compliant addressing scheme.
D. Your organization does not allow internal hosts to access Internet resources
E. Internally, you have more public IP addresses than hosts.
Answer: A, C

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.24 What are the advantages of central licensing? Choose three.
A. Only the IP address of a SmartCenter Server is needed for all licences.
B. A central licence can be removed from one Enforcement Module, and installe don
another Enforcement Module.
C. Only the IP address of an Enforcement Module is needed for all licences.
D. A central license remains valid, when you change the IP address of an Enforcemente
Module.
E. A central license can be converted into a local license.
Answer: A, B, D

CheckPoint examen   156-210   156-210 examen

NO.25 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firwall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which license type is the BEST for your deployemenet?
A. Discretionary
B. Remote
C. Central
D. Local
E. Mandatory
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-210 examen   certification 156-210

NO.26 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firewall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which of the following must be considered when licensing the
deployment? Choose two.
A. Local licenses are IP specific.
B. A license can be installed and removed on a VPN-1/Firewall-1 version 4.1, using
SmartUpdate.
C. You must contact Check Point via E-mail or telephone to create a license for an
Enforcement Module.
D. Licenses cannot be installed through SmartUpdate.
E. Licenses are obtained through the Check Point User Center
Answer: A, E

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-210   156-210   156-210 examen

NO.27 In the SmartView Tracker, what is the difference between the FireWall-1 and
VPN-1 queries? Choose three.
A. A VPN-1 query only displays encrypted and decrypted traffic.
B. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by rules, which have logging
activated.
C. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by all rules.
D. A FireWall-1 query also displays encryption and decryption information.
E. Implied rules, when logged, are viewed using the VPN-1 query.
Answer: A, B, D

CheckPoint examen   156-210   certification 156-210   156-210   156-210 examen

NO.28 Which critical files and directories need to be backed up? Choose three
A. $FWDIR/conf directory
B. rulebase_5_0.fws
C. objects_5_0.c
D. $CPDIR/temp directory
E. $FWDIR/state directory
Answer: A, B, C

certification CheckPoint   156-210   certification 156-210   certification 156-210   156-210 examen   156-210

NO.29 Which of the following statements about the General HTTP Worm Catcher is
FALSE?
A. The General HTTP Worm Catcher can detect only worms that are part of a URI.
B. Security Administrators can configure the type of notification that will take place, if a
worm is detected.
C. SmartDefense allows you to configure worm signatures, using regular expressions.
D. The General HTTP Worm Catcher's detection takes place in the kernel, and does not
require a Security Server.
E. Worm patterns cannot be imported from a file at this time.
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-210   156-210 examen   certification 156-210

NO.30 Which of the following characteristics BEST describes the behaviour of Check Point
NG with Application Intelligence?
A. Traffic not expressly permitted is prohibited.
B. All traffic is expressly permitted by explicit rules.
C. Secure connections are authorized by default. Unsecured connectdions are not.
D. Traffic is filtered using controlled ports.
E. TELNET, HTTP; and SMTP are allowed by default.
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-210   156-210 examen

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