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2014年4月24日星期四

EMC E20-891 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-891
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup Recovery Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer recently integrated EMC Avamar into their existing NetWorker datazone. After
creating a deduplication client and defining the NetWorker deduplication node, the backup is
started. However, the backup failed.
What must be done to perform a successful backup?
A. Create a local AFTD on the storage node to store deduplication metadata
B. Create an AFTD on the Avamar server to store deduplication metadata
C. Create an AFTD to store the deduplication indexes
D. Create an AFTD to store the additional bootstrap information
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer is planning to use EMC NetWorker integrated with Data Domain to backup their
enterprise. Data Domain will be used to replicate backups to an offsite location to satisfy regulatory
requirements. The customer is concerned about the difficulty in managing their backups and
backup clones with two interfaces.
What could be done to simplify the management of backups and clones?
A. Configure DD Boost with NetWorker and use clone-controlled replication.
B. Configure pre and post scripts to handle the cloning.
C. Create one backup job for cloning and one additional job for local copies.
D. Create scripts to run through the CLI to handle daily cloning.
Answer: A

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NO.3 While installing an EMC Avamar deduplication node in a NetWorker backup solution, the
Microsoft Windows client backup jobs fail to run. Which process should be running on the client
during the backup?
A. nsravtar
B. nsravamar
C. nsrim
D. nsrndmpsv
Answer: A

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NO.4 An existing EMC Data Domain customer wants to know the way to integrate Data Domain
with RMAN to their tape library. How would this integration take place?
A. Use RMAN and Media Manager Layer to backup the application
B. Use RMAN with NFS to write to tape
C. Use RMAN with DD Boost to move data to the tape library
D. Use RMAN with dNFS to write to the tape library
Answer: A

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NO.5 An EMC customer is currently backing up their Microsoft Exchange database to an EMC
Avamar server. The backups are setup to full on Friday, skip on Sunday, and only
transaction logs backed up the rest of the week. The customer would like to integrate Data Domain
to Avamar and run the database backups to the Data Domain system.
If a Data Domain system is deployed on Sunday, which type of backup runs on the following Monday?
A. Full database backup
B. Transaction logs backup
C. Backups will be skipped
D. Level 1 backup of the database
Answer: A

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NO.6 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to add their new Microsoft SharePoint distributed farm to
their backup environment. The farm contains three servers. One server contains the web front-end
and the other two servers each contain two SQL databases.
How is the number of the client resources determined?
A. One resource for each server in the farm
B. One resource for each SQL database in the farm and one for the web front-end server
C. Only one resource for the entire farm
D. One resource for each SQL database in the farm
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer has implemented EMC Data Domain Boost for Oracle RMAN software in their
environment and are successfully backing up several Oracle servers. Backups are directed to a local
Data Domain system and a second Data Domain system was configured at their disaster recovery
site as a target for replication.
What needs to be done to create copies of the backup data on the remote system that are tracked
and recoverable by RMAN?
A. Modify the RMAN script to include backup copies
B. Configure directory replication between the Data Domain systems
C. Configure Mtree replication between the Data Domain systems
D. Create a second RMAN script for the second Data Domain system
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are planning an MS SQL backup solution for a customer using EMC NetWorker and NMM
without a proxy client. Which user privilege must be configured on NetWorker?
A. Add the NMM client to the NetWorker Administrator user group
B. Add the NetWorker Administrator to the NMM remote user setting
C. Add the NMM client to the MS Windows administrators user group
D. Add the NMM client to the Operators user group
Answer: A

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NO.9 An EMC NetWorker customer has just started running backups of their new Microsoft
SharePoint distributed farm. They are concerned that their web applications are not being backed
up.
What can you tell the customer about backing up web applications?
A. Web applications are backed up with the corresponding content database
B. Add the web application name to the save set field for the client hosting the content database
C. Create a separate client resource for each web application
D. Web applications must be backed up with a file system backup method
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer has an EMC Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity.
The customer does not want to purchase any additional storage.
What will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Decrease the cleaning frequency
C. Increase the snapshot expiration period
D. Increase the number of streams
Answer: B

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2014年2月11日星期二

EMC E20-361, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: E20-361
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 319 Q&As

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NO.1 You are implementing a CIFS solution and will possibly be using Virtual Data Movers. Which CIFS
dynamic configuration information is contained within the Virtual Data Mover?
A.Virus checker configuration
B.CIFS startup configuration
C.DFS root ID information
D.Share information
Answer:D

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NO.2 An administrator wants to present several CIFS shares to users through one file server. The shares are
stored on many physical machines. What can be used with the Celerra to achieve this goal?
A.Celerra global CIFS server
B.Default CIFS server
C.Distributed File System
D.Virtual Data Mover
Answer:C

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NO.3 You have decided to use the Automatic SavVol Extension. For a Celerra of 200 GB a SavVol with 20
GB is created.
What is the size of the next Automatic SavVol Extension when HWM is reached?
A.20 GB
B.20 MB
C.64 MB
D.64 GB
Answer:A

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NO.4 The storage administrator would like to know if more AV servers are necessary for optimal
performance and protection.
Which tool can the system administrator use to analyze current utilization of the antivirus environment?
A.CAVA Calculator
B.NAS Support Matrix
C.CAVA Sizing Tool
D.Celerra Monitor
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which statement describes Celerra gateway Fibre Channel connectivity between the blades and the
back-end storage?
A.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct connection.
B.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct
C.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
D.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
Answer:C

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NO.6 You just created a new file system and exported it as an NFS export. You are informed that someone
deleted the .etc configuration directory.
What would be the best way to prevent this in the future?
A.Remove write permission on the .etc directory.
B.Export a subdirectory of the root file system.
C.Educate users about deleting system directories.
D.Set the hidden attribute on the root directory.
Answer:B

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NO.7 How is Kerberos used within the Active Directory?
A.For user authentication
B.Provides encryption of stored user passwords
C.For time synchronization
D.Provides Dynamic DNS updates
Answer:A

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NO.8 File systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
D.iSCSI LUNs
Answer:B

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NO.9 A Celerra file system has a SnapSure schedule enabled for daily checkpoints. By using the Microsoft
Shadow Copy Client, a user can see previous versions of a certain file up to a certain date in the past, but
nothing else after that.
What could be the cause of this issue?
A.Checkpoints are currently being used by an application.
B.All of the checkpoints have been refreshed.
C.There have been no changes to the file.
D.The SavVol has reached a full state.
Answer:D

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NO.10 Which Celerra Data Mover file controls both the services used for name resolution and the order in
which they are used?
A.nsswitch.conf
B.nslookup.conf
C.hosts.conf
D.resolv.conf
Answer:A

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NO.11 How does the Control Station access disk partitions on the back-end storage?
A.FC
B.NBS
C.iFCP
D.iSCSI
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which component of SnapSure identifies changed data blocks in the production file system?
A.Bitmap
B.Blockmap
C.Superblock
D.Inode
Answer:A

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NO.13 A user needs to test new software with existing data stored on a Celerra file system that has
checkpoints. The Celerra administrator is asked to mount a SnapSure checkpoint from the file system to a
different Data Mover.
Can the administrator fulfill this request? Why or why not?
A.Yes, but only if the checkpoint is mounted read-only
B.Yes, but the checkpoint cannot be restored to the PFS
C.No, because the checkpoint relies on the PFS
D.No, because a writeable snap is required for testing
Answer:C

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NO.14 What is the default result of joining a CIFS server to a Windows Active Directory domain?
A.The CIFS server shares are dynamically updated in DNS.
B.The CIFS server interface is dynamically assigned from Active Directory.
C.The "EMC Celerra" container is created in Active Directory.
D.The CIFS server is added to the Active Directory Computers container.
Answer:C

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NO.15 ile systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs
D.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
Answer:B

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NO.16 Which Celerra feature stores Windows SIDs correlated to UIDs and GIDs?
A.ntxmap
B.NASDB
C.secmap
D.SavVol
Answer:C

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NO.17 Which describes how a Usermapper client resolves a Windows SID to UNIX UID/GID?
A.Uses the resolution order defined in the Data Mover nsswitch.conf file
B.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for secmap cache on server_2
C.Uses the ntxmap.conf file first, then the Data Mover secmap cache
D.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for a primary or secondary Usermapper service
Answer:D

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NO.18 What application provides integration between the Celerra and the iSCSI host for replicating an iSCSI
LUN?
A.Replication Manager
B.Unisphere Manager
C.Navisphere Manager
D.Celerra Manager
Answer:D

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NO.19 You are implementing a Celerra CIFS solution. When discussing the mapping method choices, the site
administrator asks you to explain the significance of the user mapping method for CIFS users.
How do you respond to the site administrator?
A.CIFS servers that join the Windows domain are assigned domain SIDs. The mapping method is used to
uniquely identify the CIFS servers in the Windows AD domain to UNIX NFS servicers in the NIS domain.
B.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that requires UNIX style UIDs and GIDs for file and directory
permissions. Windows users and groups are identified with SIDs. The mapping method correlates UNIX
UIDs and GIDs to Windows SIDs for uniquely identifying users.
C.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that stores UNIX style UIDs and GIDs and Windows SIDs for file
and directory permissions. The mapping method correlates the SIDs for local group permissions on the
CIFS server shares.
D.Stand-alone CIFS servers require a manual SID assignment when configured on a Celerra. When
users from the Windows domain access the Celerra the mapping method correlates the stand-alone CIFS
server SID with the Windows user SIDs.
Answer:B

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NO.20 You have moved a VDM from one Data Mover to another. Now the users cannot access the data. What
could cause this condition?
A.Interface names are different to the source VDM.
B.The IP address on the target Data Mover is set before the move.
C.Target Data Mover sees all file systems of the source VDM.
D.You keep the same IP addresses.
Answer:A

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2014年2月5日星期三

L'avènement de la certification EMC pratique d'examen E20-495 questions et réponses

Certification EMC E20-495 est un des tests plus importants dans le système de Certification EMC. Les experts de Pass4Test profitent leurs expériences et connaissances professionnelles à rechercher les guides d'étude à aider les candidats du test EMC E20-495 à réussir le test. Les Q&As offertes par Pass4Test vous assurent 100% à passer le test. D'ailleurs, la mise à jour pendant un an est gratuite.

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Code d'Examen: E20-495
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management xCelerated Composition Platform Application Development Exam)
Questions et réponses: 182 Q&As

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NO.1 Which third-party product available from EMC is commonly deployed with TaskSpace to provide
document viewing, redaction, and redlining?
A. Workshare DeltaView
B. Informative Graphics Brava!
C. Adobe Acrobat Reader
D. Documentum Image Services
Answer: B

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NO.2 An application developer is creating a business process template and needs to ensure that certain
pieces of data that are included within a structured data type will be persisted in the repository after the
workflow completes.
To which location should the structured data type data be mapped?
A. process parameters
B. process variables
C. attributes of a package
D. no mapping is required
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is part of the xCP runtime architecture?
A. Process Integrator
B. Process Reporting Services
C. Process Builder
D. TaskSpace Configuration
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which xCP component is responsible for providing page serving and managing annotations on
documents?
A. Documentum Collaboration Services
B. Documentum PDF Annotation Services
C. Document Image Services
D. TaskSpace
Answer: C

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NO.5 Where can an application developer enable tracing for Composer to monitor building or importing a
project?
A. dfc.properties
B. log4j.properties
C. Eclipse preferences
D. composer.properties
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which component is responsible for executing outbound data/messaging activity templates from the
Process Integrator?
A. Business Process Server
B. SMTP Server
C. Content Server
D. Java Method Server
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which optional xCP product provides document capture and indexing from a customizable web
interface?
A. Informative Graphics Brava!
B. Application Xtender
C. Kofax Capture Enterprise
D. Captiva eInput
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which xCP component executes automatic runtime activities such as Queue Item Prioritization and
Outbound System Integration activities?
A. TaskSpace
B. Process Engine
C. Process Integrator
D. Content Server
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which core xCP component is responsible for aggregating business process reporting information?
A. Process Reporting Services
B. Business Activity Monitor
C. Process Engine
D. Documentum Reporting Services
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where are exceptions from Inbound Activity templates logged?
A. bpm-runtime.log
B. bps.log
C. documentum.log
D. server.log
Answer: B

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NO.11 An application developer needs to create a business process template that allows a user to modify
individual task instructions for new process instances without having to uninstall the process template.
How should the task instructions be stored?
A. in text documents stored in the repository
B. in a structured data type
C. in process variables
D. in process parameters
Answer: D

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NO.12 Case workers access a TaskSpace Task List component in order to determine the most important
tasks to work on each day. Workers will filter their task list by two required data fields: Request_date:
DATE
Income: FLOAT
A value in both fields is required in order to sufficiently minimize the number of cases shown in the case
worker's task list.
How must request_date and income be defined to minimize the response time for the task list display?
A. as simple process variables
B. within separate structured data types
C. within the same structured data type
D. as attributes within package data
Answer: C

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NO.13 A manual activity is designed with performer setting as All users in a group.
Which statement represents the server behavior?
A. A work item is generated for each user in the group and an inbox item is also generated for each user
in the group.
B. A work item is generated for each user in the group but no inbox item is generated.
C. A work item is generated for each user in the group, but only one inbox item is generated for the entire
group.
D. One work item is generated for the entire group and an inbox item is generated for each user in the
group.
Answer: A

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NO.14 During single-user testing, the task list of a TaskSpace application takes over 10 seconds to render.
What is the EMC recommended method for an application developer to identify the DQL queries that may
be the cause of the problems?
A. Turn on database level tracing and give the trace data to an experienced DBA.
B. Enable DFC tracing on the TaskSpace application server and convert the trace file to an Excel-friendly
format using traceD6.awk.
C. Install a proxy on the client machine and monitor the traffic with the TaskSpace application server
when clicking on the task list.
D. Set the last_sql_trace flag in the repository's server.ini on the Content Server and obtain all the queries
from the server log file.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A medical supply company has a product approval workflow where the unique product ID must be
exposed to TaskSpace users in the task list template.
What is the EMC best practice for exposing the ID in the task list template?
A. Customize the query that populates the task list template.
B. Put the product ID into a structured data type.
C. Customize the task list template using the WDK XML configuration.
D. Mark the package data as reportable for BAM.
Answer: B

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NO.16 After defining a package, a developer selects the This package can be used to generate reports check
box.
Where does the application developer enable audit trail settings to publish reporting data?
A. Process Reporting Services
B. the process template
C. TaskSpace
D. the package definition
Answer: B

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NO.17 Users access documents by searching for them using a fulltext query. The query could potentially
return hundreds of thousands of documents; however users are only allowed to access those that were
generated within the user ¯ s o w n depa rt m en t, w h i ch i s a s m a ll nu m be r o f docu m en t s . A ccess i s con tr o ll ed
using an ACL that grants appropriate access by department.
Which data modeling approach will significantly improve the response time for the query without changing
the query semantics?
A. Modify the query to run at the database rather than the fulltext server.
B. Ensure that the ACL assigned to documents does not contain a large number of accessors.
C. Modify the ACL to restrict, rather than grant, access using the access restrictions feature of Trusted
Content Services.
D. Add an attribute value to documents that indicates the originating department and modify the query to
filter on this attribute.
Answer: D

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NO.18 An insurance claims process invokes a child process that is used to determine whether the person
making the claim has secondary insurance. During the child process, a Boolean value,
has_other_insurance, is set by a task processor.
How should the has_other_insurance data item be defined so that the data can be shared between the
parent process and child process?
A. as a process parameter
B. as a structured data type
C. as a simple process variable
D. as an attribute of a package
Answer: D

EMC examen   E20-495   E20-495

NO.19 Where are exceptions from Outbound Activity templates logged?
A. bpm.log
B. log4j.log
C. bps.log
D. server.log
Answer: A

EMC   E20-495   E20-495

NO.20 A manual activity has a Pre-Timer defined to send an email notification.
Which task condition for the activity will trigger the email notification?
A. The task is not completed within the specified time after the workflow starts.
B. The task is not completed within the specified time once the activity is created.
C. The task is not created within the specified time after the completion of the previous activity.
D. The task is not created within the specified time after the workflow starts.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: E20-805
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Expert Exam for Techno)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

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NO.1 What would you recommend to help ease the workload on the customer s support staff?
A. Provide Remote Operations Services
B. Upgrade the Advanced Management Pod (AMP) to an HA AMP
C. Implement an IP aggregation solution
D. Implement Vblock Traffic Planes
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805   E20-805 examen   certification E20-805
Topic 5, Scenario 17
Refer to the Exhibit.
A small hospital has a three-tier web application that manages the disbursement of medicine to patients.
Key steps in the process include:
-A doctor at the hospital prescribes medicines to a patient using a handheld device.
-The handheld device connects to the prescription application server through a secure connection
-The application authenticates the doctor's credentials.
-A database records the patient number, doctor's name, and prescribed medicine and dose.
-The prescription order is crosschecked with the patient s history. (That history is entered into a separate
application and database when the patient is admitted to the hospital.)
-If no problems are detected, the order is sent as an email to the hospital pharmacy.
-The pharmacy dispenses the medicine, and prints a label that is crosschecked by the nurse before the
medicine is administered to the patient.
This application, and all applications with which it communicates, must always be available so that
medicine can be given to patients. This means that any problems with the hospital network, application
servers, database servers, or storage arrays must be identified and resolved immediately.

NO.2 Click the calculator icon in the upper left corner of the screen.
According to EMC best practices, what is the minimum number of RAID 1 protected 15,000 rpm spindles
needed (155 IOPS) to support the performance profile of the Microsoft Exchange database volumes?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 14
D. 18
Answer: D

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NO.3 How will this solution enable the customer to meet their cost savings objectives?
A. The new infrastructure will dramatically reduce implementation, testing and management efforts.
B. The new infrastructure will provide a centralized, multitenant logical architecture.
C. vStorage APIs will offload work from the hosts, allowing the hosts to scale more efficiently.
D. The highly available architecture with automated remote replication will reduce the frequency and cost
of downtime.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Your customer has an RPO of five hours for accounts receivables during the business hours of 8 a.m.
to 6 p.m. The customer's requirement is that a tape copy of a SQL level backup be made to match each
five-hour RPO mark. The creation of the SQL level tape copy must not compromise production server
performance.
To achieve these goals, Step 1 is to use Replication Manager (RM) to create a snapshot at noon and at 5
p.m.
What other steps are required?
A. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the mount server Step 3 - Activate the database Step 4 - Perform a
SQL-level backup
B. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the same server Step 3 - Activate the database Step 4 - Perform a
SQL-level backup
C. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the mount server Step 3 - Perform backup of the SQL directories
D. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the same server Step 3 - Perform backup of the SQL directories
Answer: A

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Topic 4, Scenario 15
A midsized company wants to implement a highly integrated IT infrastructure including storage, network,
compute, and management software resources.
The IT executives think they spend too much time and effort today building, testing, and optimizing
individual components in their infrastructure. They hope to consolidate their existing server-based VDI
environment with 950 desktops, 1000 Microsoft Exchange mailboxes, and homegrown Linuxbased
applications onto a virtualized infrastructure. The goal is to reduce the current costs of their aging best of
breed
HP, Juniper, Brocade, NetApp, and CLARiiON infrastructure.
The company wants the solution to have the following capabilities:
-Built-in high availability and redundancy
-Offsite disaster recovery with automated failover
-Architectural predictability
-Optimized storage, compute, and network
-Predictable and efficient power and cooling usage
-Calculable VM scaling
-Ease of deployment and use
-Rapid provisioning capabilities
-Simplified management
You have recommended implementing cloud services using Vblock architecture.

NO.5 Which disaster recovery solution would best fit the customer s needs for the VMFS datastores?
A. RecoverPoint/SE and VMware Site Recovery Manager
B. Replicator with VMware Site Recovery Manager
C. SRDF with VMware Site Recovery Manager
D. MirrorView/A with VMware Site Recovery Manager
Answer: A

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NO.6 How would you justify the use of CLARiiON splitters in your design.?
A. To avoid an excessive number of ITLs created on the SANTap splitter
B. To take advantage of the VMware vCenter integration for protected virtual machines
C. To minimize the required hardware purchases if SANTap was used for all splitting
D. To separate the splitter load to reduce the expected high load on the WAN link
Answer: A

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NO.7 As part of a legal discovery request, the customer must make available a functioning copy of the SQL
environment as it existed at the time of the TLog3 backups. What would be the most efficient way to
restore the SQL server to that point to make the data available?
A. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just before TLog3 backups were completed 2 -
Roll SQL forward by applying TLog3 backups
B. 1 - Restore the Monday SQL Server backup 2 - Apply the Tuesday SQL differential backup 3 - Roll SQL
forward by applying TLog3 backups
C. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just after TLog3 backups were completed 2 - Roll
SQL backward by subtracting TLog4 backups
D. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just after TLog2 backups were completed 2 - Roll
SQL forward by applying TLog3 backups
Answer: A

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NO.8 After three months of operations, the Monday SQL full backup is consistently running longer than the
defined backup window. For compliance purposes a tape backup must be created every Monday.
What would be the most secure way to meet the backup window with the least impact to existing
processes?
A. Change the schedule of the baseline snapshot to run before the Monday SQL full backup. Create the
tape copy from the baseline snapshot.
B. Change the Monday SQL full backup to a differential backup. Copy the differential backup to tape. Run
a SQL full backup only once a month.
C. Change the Monday SQL full backup to back up to a new CIFS share in the VNX. Use NDMP to create
a tape copy from the CIFS share.
D. Change the drive count to increase the aggregate performance of the database so that the Monday
SQL full backup runs faster.
Answer: A

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NO.9 How can you leverage the Replication Manager (RM) infrastructure to securely provide copies of
production SQL data to the software development team?
A. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Through RM, provide these users with
access only to specific SQL LUNs. Allow them to schedule their own replications.
B. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Allow them to schedule their own
replications.
C. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Through RM, provide these users with
access only to specific SQL LUNs. Allow them to create their own replication jobs.
D. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Allow them to create their own
replication jobs.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805 examen   E20-805   E20-805 examen

NO.10 The customer wants to create application-consistent copies of Exchange 2010 and SharePoint 2007
data in a CLR configuration.
What RecoverPoint features would help the customer meet this requirement?
A. KVSS and VDI integration utilities
B. KVSS and Oracle integration utilities
C. SQLSNAP and VDI integration utilities
D. SQLSNAP and TimeFinder integration utilities
Answer: A

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NO.11 The Security Operations team would like a way to quickly mitigate security vulnerabilities that are
reported by networking equipment vendors.
Which solution should be used to identify hospital equipment that is affected by these vulnerabilities?
A. EMC Ionix Network Configuration Manager Network Advisor
B. EMC Ionix Network Configuration Manager Report Advisor
C. RSA enVision
D. Application Discovery Manager
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-805   E20-805

NO.12 You have planned to implement Replication Manager in this environment to manage the backup
requirements.
According to EMC best practices, what prerequisite should you consider?
A. Circular logging must be disabled.
B. Circular logging must be enabled.
C. Transaction logs and database files must be located on the same volume.
D. "Transaction Log location:" and System path location:" for each storage group must be different
Answer: A

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Topic 3, Scenario 13
Refer to the Exhibit.
Your customer s SQL Server environment uses native SQL backup including more granular backups such
as differential backup, as well as transaction logs, to enhance the recovery solution built into the SQL
Server.
This customer also has a software development team that currently updates the development SQL
databases from the nightly production backups. All SQL environments are hosted on VNX iSCSI LUNs.
You propose creating replicas using VNX snaps, as shown in the exhibit. Your proposal includes the
implementation of Replication Manager in this environment.

NO.13 Which Vblock offering is most appropriate in this scenario?
A. Vblock 0
B. Vblock 1
C. Vblock 1U
D. Vblock 2
Answer: C

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NO.14 Topic 1, Scenario 27
Refer to the Exhibit.
A financial institution is implementing a disaster recovery (DR) solution for their key Oracle databases and
other critical data. RecoverPoint has been chosen as the replication technology to use for the DR solution.
For maximum protection, the replication uses CLR for all Oracle systems; CRR is used for all other data.
The production site uses Sun servers for the Oracle servers and Microsoft Windows Server 2008 hosts for
all other data repositories. Storage arrays for the Oracle servers are Symmetrix arrays. All other data and
business departments store their data on CLARiiON CX4 arrays.
Recently, the human resources and finance departments were migrated to the DMX to enhance security
and performance requirements.
This company also plans to bring in a new acquisition with AIX and VMware servers in the next six months.
The AIX servers will be placed on DMX storage and the VMware servers will be placed on CLARiiON
storage. Both are slated for CDP protection.
The DR site is located 2,500 km away from the production site. A dedicated T3 WAN link runs at 44 Mb/s.
Management and replication traffic will use separate VLANs. Each site contains eight RecoverPoint
appliances (RPAs) to maximize the performance and fault-tolerance business requirements. SANTap is
used for all Oracle splitting, and CX splitters are used for all other data.
To support the actual replication needs, 12 group sets were created to support the consistency within the
Oracle consistency groups. The policies on these sets include an RPO of 15 minutes.
The remainder of the data uses 54 consistency groups with an RPO of two hours.
1.What should be done to improve the performance of the WAN link for replication?
A. Enable QoS for the VLAN with RecoverPoint traffic
B. Set the link speed on the RPA to "max throughput"
C. Enable QoS on the Oracle consistency groups
D. Configure EtherChannel Link Aggregation for use with the WAN link
Answer: A

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NO.15 What should be done to throttle the amount of data being sent over the T3 line when new servers are
brought under RecoverPoint control?
A. Use the compression slider settings for best compression within the cluster
B. Use the balance_load CLI commands to distribute the CGs across the RPAs in the cluster evenly
C. Use the compression slider settings for best performance within the cluster
D. Use a combination of Distributed Consistency Group and bandwidth limits on the Oracle CGs in the
cluster
Answer: A

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NO.16 You have been asked to design a long-distance replication solution with MirrorView/S. You want to
simulate this Exchange environment and gather the baseline 200 km performance data and additional
simul-ations to perform failover testing.
Which tool should you use?
A. loadgen
B. loadsim
C. EPA
D. JetStress
Answer: A

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NO.17 Performance is a major factor in the deployment for the customer. The customer also mentions the
need for a backup solution that minimizes the impact to production. Furthermore, the customer wants
frequent datastore checks to validate integrity.
Which solution supports the customer's goals?
A. Use Replication Manager VSS integration and a VNX clone to create a copy of the production
LUN.
Perform regular database checks against the copy.
B. Use Replication Manager and VNX Snap to create a space-efficient copy.
Perform regular database checks using eseutil.
C. Use NetWorker PowerSnap to create a VNX clone.
Perform regular database checks with eseutil.
D. Use NetWorker PowerSnap to create a space-efficient copy with VNX Snap.
Perform regular database checks with eseutil.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805   E20-805   E20-805 examen

NO.18 Which utility should you recommend to the customer to assist in migrating to the proposed
infrastructure?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware Storage vMotion
C. SAN Copy
D. VMware vMotion
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805   E20-805 examen   E20-805   E20-805

NO.19 Which tool helps in analyzing the Exchange environment and provides reports on how the environment
compares with current best practices in deploying the Exchange environment?
A. ExBPA
B. Microsoft Windows Performance Monitor
C. loadsim
D. System Attendant
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805   E20-805 examen

NO.20 A new VMware customer would like to understand RecoverPoint s additional DR protection levels for
their virtual machines.
What design alterations should you propose?
A. Set up the ESX servers by using a CLR protection method and VMware s SRM functionality for
automated DR response.
B. Implement VMware SRM with the existing CDP configuration to provide automated local recovery.
C. Implement RecoverPoint CDP protection and augment the CDP copy with CLARiiON SnapView
technology.
D. Implement VMware fault tolerance on each VM between the two sites.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805   E20-805
Topic 2, Scenario 21
Refer to the Exhibit.
A customer is migrating from their present DAS solution to a new VNX array. As part of the migration, you
have been tasked with sizing the Microsoft Exchange 2010 environment, specifically sizing the
appropriate IOPS profile for the Exchange mailbox servers.
The customer has profiled the environment and provided you with the data in the exhibit. Each mailbox
store contains 100-120 heavy profile users, and each server has 10-12 mailbox stores. Mailbox limits
have been put in place at 500 MB per mailbox. Deleted item retention has been left at default values.

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Code d'Examen: E20-324
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Design Exam for Technology Architects )
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer needs help understanding Unisphere statistics on a VNX, specifically the Number of
Write Cache Pages. How do you explain this metric to the customer?
A. It is displayed per each SP, and the total number is derived from the sum of both SPs.
B. It is displayed per entire array, and the total number is half the sum of both SPs.
C. It is displayed per each SP, and the total number is four times the sum of both SPs.
D. When FAST Cache is enabled, the number includes the FAST Cache plus the sum of both SPs.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer wants to write a script that needs to list all linked remote VNX arrays for file-based
replication. What CLI command should you recommend?
A. nas_cel -list
B. nas_cel -info
C. nas_replicate -info
D. nas_replicate -list
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are preparing a detailed VNX presentation for a technically-oriented customer. VNX arrays have
been in their environment for over a year. One objective of the meeting is to go over historical data. The
customer indicated that they would like to see Unisphere statistics as part of the analysis.
Assuming that statistics logging was enabled from day one, how long does the Unisphere GUI keep its
real-time statistics?
A. Real-time statistics are stored for 1 month.
B. Real-time statistics cannot be saved to disk.
C. Real-time statistics are stored for 3 months, unless the frequency interval is less than 5 minutes.
D. Real-time statistics are stored indefinitely, but requires a dedicated collection server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
What type of VNX configuration is illustrated with this topology?
A. VNX MPFS with iSCSI/FC
B. VNX MPFS with FC/FCoE
C. VNX gateway with iSCSI/FC
D. VNX gateway with FC
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which RecoverPoint/SE data protection methodology enables block protection as well as a file DR
solution?
A. RecoverPoint/SE CRR
B. RecoverPoint/SE CLR
C. RecoverPointt/SE CDP
D. RecoverPoint/SE CDP and CRR
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which protocols are the best solution for Grid Computing and High Performance Computing
environments?
A. iSCSI, FCoE
B. pNFS, MPFS
C. CIFS, NFS
D. FTP, SMB2
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-324   E20-324   E20-324   E20-324

NO.7 You are gathering data from a customer environment. You have to process a number of configuration
reports.
What tool provides a simple method of processing the data gathering configuration?
A. Unisphere Analyzer
B. Collect Support Materials
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. CLARiiON Configuration Builder
Answer: C

EMC   E20-324 examen   E20-324

NO.8 When interviewing customer personnel, you learn of two sets of requirements:
-The technical team has a specific set of requirements that they have to meet. -The manager has a
financial requirement that has to be met.
As you begin to design, it becomes clear that, in order to meet the technical goal, the financial
requirement will be exceeded. What should you do?
A. Let both teams know of the constraints and see if there can be a mutual resolution.
B. Since this is a technical project you should design to the technical team requirements.
C. Because the manager is paying for the equipment, limit the design to fit into the financial constraints.
D. Design to the technical requirement and then take enough storage out to meet the financial goal.
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-324   E20-324   E20-324   certification E20-324   certification E20-324

NO.9 While gathering existing customer environment information to provide a new VNX storage system
solution, you have found many different HBA types, servers, operating systems, and other SAN hardware.
Which wizard within E-Lab Navigator can be used to validate a new VNX storage solution?
A. SOE & Software Wizard
B. CLARiiON Host Attach Wizard
C. Switch Interoperability Wizard
D. Storage Array Wizard
Answer: C

EMC   E20-324 examen   E20-324 examen   certification E20-324   certification E20-324

NO.10 Your customer has purchased a VNX to upgrade the storage for an Exchange Server cluster. What tool
should you use to gather performance data from the Exchange cluster?
A. iostat
B. sar
C. esxtop
D. perfmon
Answer: D

certification EMC   E20-324   certification E20-324   E20-324   E20-324

NO.11 When documenting the customer environment prior to a storage refresh, you discover that the
customer has an issue their backups do not complete every job. How should you proceed?
A. Have the customer resolve the issue before continuing.
B. Note the issue in the Statement of Work and continue with planning.
C. Open a case for the backup issue and resolve it yourself.
D. No actionrequired:SOW does not include resolving this type of issue.
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-324   E20-324   certification E20-324   E20-324 examen

NO.12 Refer to the exhibit.
What type of VNX MPFS configuration is illustrated with this topology?
A. VNX gateway with FC
B. VNX with iSCSI/FC
C. VNX with iSCSI/FCoE
D. VNX gateway with MPFSi
Answer: D

EMC examen   E20-324   E20-324

NO.13 During your design analysis you have gathered current storage configuration data and matched storage
volumes with server data. You have discovered some inconsistencies with the collected data.
What should the next step be?
A. Resolve any inconsistencies with the customer according to best practices.
B. Let the implementation engineer resolve the inconsistencies.
C. Note the inconsistencies and forward a redesign to the implementation engineer.
D. Resolve the inconsistencies yourself according to best practices.
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-324   E20-324   E20-324   E20-324

NO.14 While gathering performance data during peak workloads, which type of collection method is best
suited?
A. Larger periods of data collection over shorter intervals
B. Smaller periods of data collection over shorter intervals
C. Smaller periods of data collection over larger intervals
D. Larger periods of data collection over larger intervals
Answer: C

certification EMC   certification E20-324   E20-324   certification E20-324   certification E20-324

NO.15 The majority of your customer's servers have highly utilized database applications that require
predictable performance.
What type of storage do you recommend.?
A. RAID Groups with traditional LUNs
B. Storage groups with thick LUNs
C. Pool with traditional LUNs
D. RAID Groups with thin LUNs
Answer: A

EMC examen   certification E20-324   E20-324 examen

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Code d'Examen: E20-690
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Platform Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 How are SAS bus hardware IDs configured for the VNX enclosures?
A. Automatically assigned during system boot process
B. Assigned by the address switch located on each enclosure
C. Assigned by Unisphere Service Manager
D. Assigned by the Backend Bus Reset Wizard in Unisphere
Answer: A

EMC   E20-690   E20-690   E20-690

NO.2 Where can you find the widest range of resources for VNX-related information?
A. VNX Family Product Page
B. Support by Product
C. Partners Web Page
D. IP Storage Handbook
Answer: A

EMC   E20-690 examen   E20-690 examen

NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 1 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
B. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
Answer: A

certification EMC   certification E20-690   E20-690 examen   certification E20-690   E20-690

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 2 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
B. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-690 examen   certification E20-690

NO.5 Which kind of back-end bus connectivity is supported on a VNX storage system?
A. 4 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
B. 4 lane 6 Gb/s FC
C. 2 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
D. 2 lane 6 Gb/s FC
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-690   E20-690 examen

NO.6 A new VNX Unified system has been installed. The engineer would like to verify that the hosts are
running a supported operating system and EMC PowerPath software version. What resource should be
used?
A. VNX Simple Support Matrix
B. VNX Procedure Generator
C. VNX Installation Toolkit
D. VNX Product Support Bulletins
Answer: A

EMC   E20-690   E20-690   E20-690   E20-690 examen

NO.7 Which resource is required for all VNX activities performed by EMC and Partner personnel?
A. Simple VNX Support Matrix
B. Host Connectivity Guide
C. VNX Procedure Generator
D. Interoperability Matrices
Answer: C

EMC examen   certification E20-690   E20-690

NO.8 A customer asks your help in determining which types of DPE and disk drives are supported in a VNX
storage system. How would you respond?
A. 2U DPE with either fifteen 2.5 ± SAS o r t w en t -five 3.5" EFD disk drives
B. 3U DPE with either fifteen 3.5 ± EFD , SAS o r t w en t -five 2.5" SAS disk drives
C. 4U DPE with either fifteen 3.5 ± FC , EFD o r t w en t -five .2.5" SAS disk drives
D. 3U DPE with either fifteen 2.5 ± EFD , FC o r t w en t -five 2.5 ± EFD d i sk d ri ves
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-690   E20-690   E20-690   certification E20-690

NO.9 What IP address is assigned to the eth3 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the A management network
B. IP address for the B management network
C. Public IP address for the customer's network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Answer: C

EMC examen   E20-690 examen   certification E20-690   certification E20-690   E20-690 examen

NO.10 What protocols does the Data Mover support.?
A. CIFS, NFS, pNFS and MPFS
B. CIFS, pNFS, and SCSI
C. MPFS, HTTP, FTP, and NFS
D. NFS, FC, and CIFS
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-690   E20-690

NO.11 Which VNX enclosures use a common motherboard architecture?
A. DME and SPE
B. DPE and SPE
C. DPE and 25-drive DAE
D. Control Station and DME
Answer: A

EMC   E20-690 examen   certification E20-690   E20-690   certification E20-690

NO.12 Refer to the exhibit.
Where is DM 3 located?
A. Location 6
B. Location 5
C. Location 7
D. Location 10
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-690   E20-690

NO.13 What are the minimum components required to configure a VNX5500 for Block storage system?
A. Control Station, SP, DAE
B. Control Station, SP, DME
C. SP, DME, DAE
D. SPS, SPE, DAE
Answer: D

EMC examen   E20-690   E20-690   E20-690

NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
Which component is located in location 3?
A. CS 1
B. CS 0
C. DAE 0
D. DAE 1
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-690   E20-690

NO.15 What IP address is assigned to the eth2 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the B management network
B. IP address for the A management network
C. Public IP address for the customer's network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-690   E20-690   E20-690

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Code d'Examen: E20-814
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 A company uses EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage for their VMware vSphere environment. They
intend to use SRDF/S for disaster recovery.
What is a consideration when mounting datastores on the remote site after a failover?
A. Keep the existing signature on the replica datastore
B. Assign a new signature to the replica datastore
C. Replica datastore must be mounted as read only
D. Original datastore must be unmounted before the replica datastore can be mounted
Answer: A

EMC   E20-814   certification E20-814

NO.2 A company is planning to migrate their Oracle database to EMC Symmetrix VMAX to support
decision support system applications. They would like design guidelines to overcome the existing
performance bottlenecks.
What is the key design guideline?
A. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 5 protection
B. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles RAID 5 protection
C. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles with RAID 1 protection
D. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 1 protection
Answer: D

EMC examen   E20-814   certification E20-814

NO.3 A company's administrator has implemented Symmetrix Access Control. The motherboard in
the
UNIX host with ADMIN privileges was replaced. After this change, the administrator was unable to
issue any Symmetrix Management commands.
What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. Regenerate the Unique ID
B. Reboot the UNIX host
C. Reset the Access Control database
D. Reinstall Solutions Enabler
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-814   E20-814   E20-814 examen

NO.4 A company has a vSphere environment consisting of eight ESXi hosts. Each host is running
EMC
PowerPath/VE and is connected to multiple FA ports on their Symmetrix. PowerPath/VE will not
claim the disk devices presented by their storage array even though the devices are seen by the
hosts.
What is the most likely solution?
A. Configure and register the PowerPath/VE license file
B. Check LUN masking on the array
C. Change the PowerPath/VE failover policy to Symopt
D. Uninstall and reinstall PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-814   certification E20-814

NO.5 All applications running on an EMC Symmetrix VMAX array are experiencing poor
performance.
The environment is characterized by:
Dissimilar workloads
Inefficient resource utilization
Service levels not being met
What can be done to guarantee service levels of business critical applications?
A. Implement dynamic cache partitioning
B. Balance throughput across ports
C. Re-map devices to evenly map the workload
D. Provision new storage for applications
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-814   E20-814 examen   E20-814 examen

NO.6 A company uses VMware ESXi servers and EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage arrays. The storage
administrators use the VMware vSphere client on their Microsoft Windows desktops to manage
the environment. They would like to use the EMC Virtual Storage Integrator Path Management
plug-in.
Which path management activities will this plug-in allow?
A. Set multi-pathing policy for all Symmetrix devices
B. Set multi-pathing policy for individual Symmetrix devices
C. Change the multi-pathing ownership of all Symmetrix devices from NMP to PowerPath/VE
D. Change the multi-pathing ownership of individual Symmetrix devices from NMP to
PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

EMC   E20-814   E20-814   E20-814

NO.7 SRDF/EDP is running in Adaptive Copy Disk mode from the source (R1) site to the secondary
(R21) site. Which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and the R2 sites?
A. Adaptive Copy Write Pending
B. Adaptive Copy Disk
C. Synchronous
D. Semi-synchronous
Answer: A

EMC   E20-814 examen   E20-814

NO.8 A company has activated a consistent clone replica of an Oracle database using hot backup
mode
on February 26th. The Oracle instance continues to run until March 6th. On March 7th, the
company realizes that an application problem occurred on February 28th.
What is the most recent point to which the database can be recovered?
A. February 26th
B. February 28th
C. March 6th
D. March 7th
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-814   certification E20-814

NO.9 An Oracle ASM disk group consists of two 50 GB LUNs and is currently in use. The Oracle
database requires more storage space and has two 100 GB LUNs available.
What is the recommended way to organize ASM disk groups to make use of additional space?
A. Create a new disk group containing two 100 GB LUNs
B. Extend the current disk group to include the two 100 GB LUNs
C. Create two new disk groups containing one 100 GB LUN each
D. Double the disk group size by extending with one 100 GB LUN
Answer: A

EMC   E20-814   E20-814   E20-814

NO.10 Storage administrators for an EMC Symmetrix VMAX need to increase allocated storage for
Microsoft Exchange LUNs without interrupting its operation. Performing a virtual LUN migration
causes a critical nightly clone operation to run for hours instead of minutes. This impacts later
dependent jobs, preventing production operations from completing.
How can this impact to the nightly process be minimized?
A. Set a QoS value of 8 for MIR Copy Pace
B. Set a QoS value of 0 for MIR Copy Pace
C. Set SPC value of 1 on the Exchange LUNs
D. Set SPC value of 8 on the clone LUNs
Answer: A

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2014年1月29日星期三

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Code d'Examen: E20-616
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 241 Q&As

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NO.1 Which type of Symmetrix volume contains information on the dynamic mirror policy decisions, error
logging, event traces, code image storage, and a dedicated lost write area?
A. BCV
B. Data
C. DRV
D. SFS
Answer: D

EMC   E20-616   E20-616

NO.2 Which component of a DMX-2 performs Front End, director-to-director communications?
A. CCM
B. ECM
C. LCC
D. PBC
Answer: A

EMC   E20-616   E20-616   certification E20-616

NO.3 What is a difference between a Symmetrix 8830 and a DMX-2?
A. An 8830 24-slot card cage is scalable
B. Disks on a DMX-2 are FC-AL
C. DMX-2 uses a cache interconnect multi-drop bus
D. Maximum system bandwidth on an 8830 is 16Gb/s
Answer: B

EMC   E20-616   E20-616

NO.4 What does the Interleave Service Policy manage during a read operation?
A. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 randomly
B. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 alternatively
C. Reads the tracks only from M1
D. Tracks measurements of I/O on logical volumes and chooses the appropriate mirror
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-616   E20-616 examen   E20-616

NO.5 A service processor fails to communicate with directors 1 through 8 in the DMX-2 series. Which
component can cause this failure?
A. CCM0
B. ECM0
C. ECM1
D. XCM
Answer: A

EMC examen   certification E20-616   E20-616 examen   E20-616   E20-616

NO.6 When looking at the DMX FA Back Adapter, you notice that one of the SFPs is blue. What does this
mean?
A. Long wave, multi mode port
B. Long wave, single mode port
C. Short wave, multi mode port
D. Short wave, single mode port
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-616   E20-616   E20-616   E20-616

NO.7 What is a major difference in director data flow between the Symmetrix 8000 series and a DMX-2?
A. An 8430 uses loop redundancy
B. An 8530's directors are connected to two data busses
C. Directors in a DMX-2 are connected to top high and bottom low
D. DMX-2 port bypass cards are connected directly to cache
Answer: B

certification EMC   E20-616   E20-616

NO.8 A DMX-2 memory configuration containing four (4) memory boards is to be upgraded to larger size
cache boards. The upgrade results in a two (2) memory board configuration. How will the bandwidth of
the DMX-2 be affected by the upgrade?
A. Decreased by the smaller cache card count
B. Increased by the larger memory size
C. Unchanged, only memory size is affected
D. Will remain at the theoretical maximum
Answer: B

EMC   E20-616 examen   E20-616   E20-616   E20-616   E20-616

NO.9 A customer's AC power fails to a Symmetrix 8430/8530. In this case, which components will the
battery subsystem sustain?
A. Card cage and disks
B. Communication cards and service processors
C. Disk drives and memory
D. Memory cards and service processor
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-616   E20-616 examen   E20-616 examen

NO.10 All the memory slots in a DMX-1000 are occupied. In this case, what is run from the procedure Wizard
to perform Memory Replacement?
A. Add Memory Board script to the Universal slot script, run Replace Memory Board Script, and replace
that board
B. Remove Memory Board script first and then Add Memory Board Script
C. Replace Memory Board script
D. Upgrade Memory Board script
Answer: B

certification EMC   certification E20-616   E20-616 examen

NO.11 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of a Symmetrix DMX22000/3000 Card Cage. Where will you find ECM1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-616   E20-616 examen   E20-616

NO.12 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is CCM0?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D

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NO.13 When is the relationship between a data volume and a BCV created?
A. When the BCV is created in the bin file
B. When the BCV is established
C. When the BCV is split
D. When the BCV is varied on
Answer: B

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NO.14 How is DPR enabled?
A. By the EMC z/OS Storage Manager
B. In the bin file
C. Inlines Command
D. On the host by z/OS
Answer: B

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NO.15 A customer wants to change Host Directors to support SRDF. What distinguishes one director type
from another within a Symmetrix 8000 series?
A. Director model number
B. Director revision
C. Emulation code
D. Enginuity code level
Answer: C

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NO.16 On a DMX1000P, how many DAs are required?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.17 A customer wants to set up an FA port for a 10km distance connection. Which optic mode will meet the
customer's need?
A. Long wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
B. Long wave, Fibre Single Mode port
C. Short wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
D. Short wave, Fibre Single Mode port
Answer: B

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NO.18 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is ECM1?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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NO.19 Click the exhibit button.
The customer has handed you this service alert error message. What is the error?
A. Alarm signal set
B. PC failed to call home due to communication problems
C. Temperature problems
D. Mirror device is not ready at time of periodic test
Answer: D

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NO.20 When will a customer's host be able to access the data on a BCV?
A. After the BCV is established
B. After the BCV is split
C. When the BCV is created in the Bin
D. While the BCV is syncing with the data volume
Answer: B

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