Dernières ISEB ISEB-SWTINT1 BH0-011 ISEB-ITILV3F examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ISEB-SWTINT1
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing)
Questions et réponses: 43 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BH0-011
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (BCS Intermediate certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ISEB-ITILV3F
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ITIL Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management)
Questions et réponses: 162 Q&As

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NO.1 Why has the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres been developed?
a. Because data centres are using an increasing amount of power and they need to maximise their
efficiency to reduce their impact on the power infrastructure.
b. Because the power consumption of data centres across Europe as a whole needs to fall to meet
agreed C02 targets.
c. Because many data centres have outdated designs which focus on perceived reliability at the expense
of cost and energy efficiency.
d. Because the energy consumption of data centres has become a significant business cost.
e. Because the United States (US) has taken a significant lead in energy conservation and EU-based data
centres need a code of conduct to compete in a global marketplace.
A. a, b, c and d
B. a, c and d
C. b and e
D. e only
Answer: B

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NO.2 'Facility load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the following?
a. The UPS.
b. Lighting.
c. Air-conditioning units.
d. Monitors housed in racks.
e. Tape libraries
A. a, b, and c
B. a and d
C. b and c
D. d, and e
Answer: A

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NO.3 The numerical value associated with each Best Practice is shown for the following reason:
A. To allow operators to add up their total score in order that they can be compared with their competitors.
B. To allow the Code of Conduct administrators to properly assess each application.
C. To provide an independent scorecard for data centre owners.
D. To indicate the level of benefit from carrying out a Best Practice.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A facility's 'IT load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the
following?
a. The Power Distribution Units feeding the racks
b. Servers
c. Firewalls
d. Switches
e. Tape libraries
A. b, c. d and e
B. a, d and e
C. b and c
D. b. c and d
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following BEST define the aims of the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres.?
a. To determine and accelerate the application of energy efficient technologies.
b. Develop practical voluntary commitments which when implemented improve the energy efficiency of
data centres and in so doing minimise the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
c. To develop and promote a set of easily understood metrics to measure the current efficiencies and
subsequent improvement.
d. To encourage the closure of data centres that are less energy efficient.
e. To ensure that the EU is visibly taking a lead in this important area of energy conservation.
A. a, b, c and d
B. d and e
C. a, b and c
D. e only
Answer: C

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ISEB BH0-009 EUCOC ISEBSWTINT-001 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: BH0-009
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ITSM Foundation Certificate in Problem & Incident Management)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

Code d'Examen: EUCOC
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Intermediate Certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data centres )
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ISEBSWTINT-001
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Software Testing Intermediate)
Questions et réponses: 25 Q&As

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NO.1 In the Balance of Consequences, which of the consequence types should be used first to drive
behavioural change?
a)Immediate Positive.
b)Immediate Negative.
c)Delayed Positive.
d)Delayed Negative.
A.a and b.
B.c and d.
C.a only.
D.b only.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When confirming the most probable cause, you should choose methods that are
A.Easiest, quickest, cheapest, safest, surest.
B.Things that you can do right now.
C.Acceptable to everyone who will be involved.
D.Able to be done experimentally i.e.not in live.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Once you have found the cause of a problem, you should use Think Beyond the Fix to prevent
recurrence.What are two ways to Think Beyond the Fix?
A.Extend the cause, extend the fix.
B.Identify likely causes, take preventive action.
C.Identify distinctions, identify changes.
D.Identify likely effects, plan contingent action.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following activities is NOT part of Situation Appraisal?
A.Identify concerns.
B.Set priority.
C.Identify possible causes.
D.Plan involvement.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Why are Turnaround Questions used when developing a problem specification?
A.To drill down to the most specific answer.
B.To get lots of information.
C.When you stop making progress
D.To involve more people.
Answer: A

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NO.6 In Decision Analysis, actions to reduce risk:
a)Take a great amount of planning.
b)Can be done quickly and simply.
c)Should only be done when the risks are high.
d)Should bring risk to an acceptable level.
A.a and b.
B.b and d.
C.c only.
D.d only.
Answer: B

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NO.7 When looking at the Performance System, which is the correct sequence?
A.Situation, Performer, Response, Feedback, Consequences.
B.Consequences, Feedback, Situation, Performer, Response.
C.Situation, Performer, Response, Consequences, Feedback.
D.Performer, Feedback, Situation, Consequences, Response.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following activities would initially help identify how green an organisation currently is?
A. Developing a Stakeholder Map.
B. Drafting an action register.
C. Holding a fact-finding workshop.
D. Creating a carbon accounting system.
Answer: C

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Le plus récent matériel de formation ISEB BH0-008 BH0-005

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Code d'Examen: BH0-008
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Foundation Certificate in Green IT)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BH0-005
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Certificate in Software Asset Management Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following BEST describes the objective of the Core Asset Management processes?
A.To maintain information about software assets throughout their lifecycle and to manage the physical
assets related to software
B.To manage all software assets and their licenses.
C.To manage all software and hardware assets
D.To identify and maintain information about all software assets throughout their lifecycle.
Answer:A

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NO.2 What method of metering would be BEST suited to a concurrent license based application?
A.Active
B.Selective
C.Non-selective.
D.Passive.
Answer:A

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NO.3 There is a need to reduce the number of SAM reports produced. Which of the following is the LEAST
necessary?
A.The number of software related calls to the Service Desk
B.The cost of a site licence for existing software
C.The number of deployed licenses for each item of software
D.The number of new software licenses required.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which of these elements is part of the preparation stage of implementation?
A.Identifying and assessing software risks and creating a risk register
B.Occasionally completing surprise or ad hoc reviews and audits
C.Highlighting any problems and raising the profile of continued non-conformance
D.Continuously emphasise the importance of the SAM process to all ICT and business personnel.
Answer:A

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NO.5 For reporting purposes which of the following would you NOT expect to be used to derive SAM reports?
A.DSL
B.CMDB
C.OLA.
D.KEDB.
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: FCGIT
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Green IT)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ISEB-PM1
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Project Management)
Questions et réponses: 625 Q&As

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NO.1 A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and
is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a
failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks. If the
project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:
A. It only had six weeks of changes.
B. It was completed within the baseline.
C. There were so few changes.
D. There was good communication control.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of the following should
provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?
A. The company code of conduct
B. The project charter
C. The scope management plan
D. The negotiation plan
Answer: A

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NO.3 All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:
A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created.
B. He or she may initiate changes to the project.
C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change.
D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A project manager has made a change to the project. What should she do NEXT?
A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A work authorization system can be used to:
A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?
A. Benefit cost analysis
B. Net present value
C. Value analysis
D. Needs assessment
Answer: C

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NO.7 The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign
procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects. A procurement
professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a decentralized
contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise
Answer: D

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NO.8 Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will
be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the
product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US
$150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other
than daily status. How would you define this situation.?
A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project
management.
Answer: C

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Dernières ISEB ISEBSWTINT-001 BH0-001 ISEB-ITILF examen pratique questions et réponses

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Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Software Testing Intermediate)
Questions et réponses: 25 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: ISEB (IT Service Management Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 41 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: ISEB (The Foundation Examination - ITIL®)
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NO.1 Establishing a back-out plan
A. All of them
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Answer: C

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4.Why is Service Management so important to IT service providers?
A. The success of many businesses depends upon the quality of their IT
B. It's the only way to manage IT in the Internet age
C. It's contained within the IT Infrastructure Library
D. It's the first non-proprietary initiative for the management of IT systems
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of these is/are TRUE?
1. Functional escalation is an essential part of the Incident Management process
2. All calls to the Service Desk should be treated as incidents
3. Service Requests can be handled by Service Desk Staff
A. 1 and 3
B. All three of them
C. Only 1
D. 1 and 2
Answer: A

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NO.3 A service-based (rather than a customer-based) SLA:
A. Covers all services for a particular customer
B. Covers a set of similar services, for a single customer
C. Covers all services
D. Covers a single service, for all of the customers of that service
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following activities may, exceptionally, be omitted for an urgent
change:
1. Recording that the change has been made
2. Testing the change
3. Holding a CAB meeting

NO.5 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management
process?
A. The physical aspects of software control
B. Ensuring that the accuracy of CMDB entries concerning software CIs is maintained
C. Helping to determine the software release policy
D. Distributing software
Answer: B

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NO.6 Who must always authorise a Request for Change before the change is built and
tested?
A. The Configuration Manager
B. The Change Initiator
C. The Change Manager
D. Release Management
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following places Problem Management activities in the correct order:
A. Identify and record, classify, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, review the
change
B. Investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, identify and record
C. Identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, review the
change
D. Review a change, classify, identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise another
RFC
Answer: A

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NO.8 With which of the following processes is Problem Management least likely to
interface on a regular basis?
A. IT Financial Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

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Nom d'Examen: ISEB (BCS Certified Tester Foundation Level 2011 syllabus)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a) Stubs may be used.
b) May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c) Tests the interactions between software components.
d) Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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NO.2 Given the following sample of pseudo code:
01.Input number of male rabbits
02 Input number of female rabbits
03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then
04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No
06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart
07 End if
08 End If.
Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement 6 is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a
testing tool?
A. Determine whether the organisation existing test process needs to change.
B. Conduct a proof of concept.
C. Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. d) Identify coaching and
mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool
D. a, b and c.
Answer: D

ISEB   BH0-010   BH0-010

NO.4 Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User
log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the four
defect reports submitted.
Which Tester has reported the incident MOST effectively, considering the information and priority they
have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4
Answer: D

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NO.5 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.6 Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and z):
i) Exploratory Testing
ii) Equivalence Partitioning
iii)Decision Testing
iv)Use Case Testing
v) Condition coverage
x) Specification-based
y) Structure-based
z) Experienced-based
A. x =i and ii; y = iii and v; z = iv.
B. x =i, ii and iv; y = v; z = iii
C. x = ii and iv; y = iii and v; z = i.
D. x = iii and iv; y = v; z = i and ii.
Answer: C

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NO.7 The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
The following test cases have been run:
* Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G
* Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
* Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.B.Statement coverage is less than
100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.C.Statement coverage is 100%;
decision coverage is less than 100%.
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.D.Statement coverage and
decision coverage are both less than 100%.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?
A. Explain the objectives
B. Select the personnel group
C. Document results
D. Define entry and exit criteria
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?
A. Each test level has the same test objective.
B. There should be more testing activities than development activities.
C. Test design can only begin when development is complete.
D. Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?
A. It is easy to test them all in a short time
B. It is not practically possible to test them all
C. It is not possible to test any of them
D. It is essential to test them all in order to do good testing
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a) Adapt planning based on test results.
b) Create test specifications.
c) Plan tests.
d) Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.12 In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up.
A. Test implementation and execution.
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following are structure-based techniques?
a) Decision table testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Multiple condition coverage
d) Use case testing
e) Decision testing
A. a and c.
B. b and d.
C. b and e.
D. c and e.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which one of the following is true of software development models?
A. There are always four test levels in the V-model.
B. In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.
C. In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on the
project.
D. There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools?
a) They support traceability of tests to source documents.
b) They provide an interface to test execution tools.
c) They help to enforce coding standards.
d) They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.
A. a and c
B. b and c
C. a and b
D. b and d
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following is an example of a product risk?
A. Software that does not perform its intended functions
B. Failure of a third party
C. Problems in defining the right requirements
D. Skill and staff shortages
Answer: A

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NO.18 Given the following state table:
Which of the following represents an INVALID transition (N)?
A. Off fromisplay Channel 1?
B. Channel 2 from Display Channel 1?
C. Stby from Live?
D. Channel 2 from Live?
Answer: A

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NO.19 A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either upper
or lower case.
Which of the following test cases is from an INVALID equivalence partition?
A. Feeds
B. F33ds
C. FEEDS
D. fEEDs
Answer: B

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NO.20 Given the following flow chart diagram:
What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100% decision
coverage, respectively?
A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.
C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.
D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ISEB-PM1
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Project Management)
Questions et réponses: 625 Q&As

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NO.1 What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?
A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price.
B. Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate.
C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved project
charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:
A. Create a project scope statement.
B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope.
C. Analyze project risk.
D. Begin work on a project management plan.
Answer: B

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NO.3 If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all
project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better:
A. WBS.
B. Communications management plan.
C. Project management information system.
D. Project scope management plan.
Answer: C

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NO.4 All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:
A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created.
B. He or she may initiate changes to the project.
C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change.
D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product
request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the
objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a
straightforward development effort. As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?
A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.
B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.
C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the
project.
D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?
A. Constrained optimization
B. Comparative approach
C. Benefit measurement
D. Impact analysis
Answer: A

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NO.7 A work authorization system can be used to:
A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of the following should
provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?
A. The company code of conduct
B. The project charter
C. The scope management plan
D. The negotiation plan
Answer: A

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NO.9 A project manager has made a change to the project. What should she do NEXT?
A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?
A. Benefit cost analysis
B. Net present value
C. Value analysis
D. Needs assessment
Answer: C

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NO.11 A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and
is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a
failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks. If the
project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:
A. It only had six weeks of changes.
B. It was completed within the baseline.
C. There were so few changes.
D. There was good communication control.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will
be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the
product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US
$150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other
than daily status. How would you define this situation.?
A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project
management.
Answer: C

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NO.13 While preparing your risk responses, you realize that you have not planned for unknown risk events.
You need to make adjustments to the project to compensate for unknown risk events. These adjustments
are based on your past project experience when unknown risk events occurred and knocked the project
off track. What should you do?
A. Include a management reserve in the budget to try to compensate for the unknown risks, and notify
management to expect unknown risks to occur.
B. Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on probability and
impact that may result from the occurrence.
C. Determine the unknown risk events and the associated cost, then add the cost to the project budget as
reserves.
D. With the stakeholders, determine a percentage of the known risk budget to allocate to a management
reserve budget.
Answer: A

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NO.14 A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team.
To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:
A. The sponsor.
B. Other project managers.
C. The project management office.
D. The team.
Answer: C

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NO.15 The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign
procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects. A procurement
professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a decentralized
contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise
Answer: D

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NO.16 The Java development of a project is outsourced to India. The project schedule is starting to slip. What
is the LEAST likely cause of the slippage?
A. Lack of competent programmers
B. Cultural influences
C. Internationalization
D. Communication
Answer: A

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NO.17 A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a useful
change to the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project manager asked her
to write a report describing the benefits of the change. What is the MOST appropriate advice for the
situation?
A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself.
B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during project
planning.
C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and compare
them to other possible changes. The team member should do what was asked.
D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to the
project sponsor to make the change.
Answer: C

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NO.18 A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with
aggressive timelines.
The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to:
A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and
stakeholders.
B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their
input.
C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and
stakeholders.
D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to
plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your
chance of success.
A. Your intuition and training
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Historical information
D. Configuration management
Answer: C

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NO.20 An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that he has
been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty about it and is
telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do. What should you do?
A. Ask for full details.
B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal.
C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity.
D. Tell the employee to inform his boss.
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: ISEB (The Foundation Examination - ITIL®)
Questions et réponses: 418 Q&As

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NO.1 Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C

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NO.2 The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is
called the:
A. Technical Management (TM)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2) What services to offer and to whom?
3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 are all true
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D

ISEB   ISEB-ITILF   ISEB-ITILF

NO.6 A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B

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NO.8 In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B

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NO.9 How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan, then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do, then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is a RACI model used for.?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A

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NO.13 The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A

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NO.14 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimize
the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. Service Model
B. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
C. RACI Model
D. Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
Answer: C

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NO.17 Exhibit: * Missing*
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C

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NO.18 The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB ISTQB Certificate in Software Testing)
Questions et réponses: 44 Q&As

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NO.1 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
Answer: A

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NO.2 As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage?
if width > length then
biggest_dimension = width
if height > width then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
biggest_dimension = length
if height > length then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
end_if
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing)
Questions et réponses: 43 Q&As

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NO.1 As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage.?
If width > lenth then
Biggest_diension = width
If height > width then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
Biggest_diension = length
If height>length
Then
Biggest_dimension = height
End_if
End_if
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
Answer: A

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Nom d'Examen: ISEB (The Foundation Examination - ITIL®)
Questions et réponses: 418 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2) What services to offer and to whom?
3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 are all true
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B

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NO.3 The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimize
the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B

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NO.7 The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is
called the:
A. Technical Management (TM)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. Service Model
B. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
C. RACI Model
D. Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
Answer: C

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NO.10 How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan, then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do, then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A

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NO.13 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C

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NO.14 Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D

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NO.16 Exhibit: * Missing*
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C

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NO.17 The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C

ISEB   certification ISEB-ITILF   ISEB-ITILF

NO.18 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is a RACI model used for.?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A

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NO.20 A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A

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