Dernières EXIN EX0-102 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: EX0-102
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (Microsoft Operations Framework,MOFF)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 Which is a goal of MOF?
A. ensure that business oversight governs IT service lifecycle activity to promote business/IT alignment
B. ensure that the investment in IT delivers expected business value at an acceptable level of risk
C. provide guidance to Finance and Accounting groups to successfully audit services delivered by IT
D. provide a common reference standard for any enterprise offering IT services to internal and external
customers
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a goal of the Plan phase?
A. Delivered Services are adaptable to the changing needs of the business
B. Packaged product deployments are deployed in line with business requirements
C. To ensure that deployed services operated in line with the agreed-to SLA targets
D. To establish an integrated approach to IT Service Management activities
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which SMF provides root cause analysis?
A. Incident Management
B. Problem Management
C. Stabilizing
D. Testing
Answer: B

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NO.4 Is the Portfolio Management Review focused on understanding the state of supply and demand for IT
services and directing investments to make sure that the business value of IT is realized?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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NO.5 What do the steps to setting policy not include?
A. reviewing legal compliance
B. review and maintain policies
C. publish policies
D. validate policies
Answer: A

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NO.6 What Management Review (MR) determines whether IT is working on the right things and clarifies the
business value of proposed projects?
A. Policy and Control
B. Portfolio
C. Release Readiness
D. Service Alignment
Answer: B

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NO.7 Performing IT accounting is part of which SMF?
A. Business/IT Alignment SMF
B. Financial Management SMF
C. Policy Management SMF
D. Reliability Management SMF
Answer: B

EXIN   EX0-102   EX0-102

NO.8 Which statement is true about the SMFs in the Operate Phase?
A. All SMFs feed the Deliver Phase.
B. The Customer Service SMF focuses on how to resolve complex problems.
C. The SMFs are dependant on each other.
D. The SMFs are sequential.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What does the focus of the Change and Configuration SMF in the Plan phase include?
A. Architectural change
B. Corporate strategy transfer to IT strategy
C. Legal and compliance representation
D. Process and procedure
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the IT service lifecycle composed of?
A. Build phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase, Manage layer
B. Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deploy phase, Operate phase
C. Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase
D. Plan phase, Develop phase, Operate phase, Manage phase
Answer: C

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NO.11 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Define service requirements
B. Monitoring and improving plans
C. Planning
D. all of the above
Answer: D

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NO.12 What does MOF organize?
A. Activities and processes into SMF, which are grouped together in phases that mirror the IT service
lifecycle.
B. Activities and processes into phases, which are grouped into SMFs that mirror the IT service lifecycle.
C. Activities and processes into SMFs, which are directed by Management Reviews that mirror the IT
service lifecycle.
D. Activities and processes into phases, which are directed by Management Reviews that mirror the IT
service lifecycle.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What do the goals of the Reliability SMF include?
A. Service maintainability is aligned to the business in a cost-effective manner.
B. Service Continuity is aligned to the business in a cost-effective manner.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which statement of the IT service lifecycle is not correct?
A. It isolates risk to the Operate phase.
B. It addresses the design and delivery of the IT service.
C. It describes the life of an IT service.
D. It represents planning and optimizing the IT service to align with the business strategy.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ITIL
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (ITIL V3 Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 369 Q&As

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NO.1 How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
To automatically detect service affecting events
To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.3 A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
What services to offer and to whom?
What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D

EXIN examen   ITIL   ITIL   ITIL   ITIL examen

NO.5 Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the continual service improvement
model/approach.?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually
improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we have arrived?; How do we
keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan;
Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get
there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B

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NO.8 The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following models would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. RACI model
B. Service Model
C. Continual Service improvement (CSI) model.
D. The Deming Cycle
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B

EXIN   ITIL   ITIL

NO.11 Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C

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NO.12 In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B

EXIN   ITIL   ITIL

NO.13 Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B

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NO.16 Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C

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NO.17 The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C

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NO.18 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following are managed by facilities management? Hardware within a data centre or
computer room Applications Power and cooling equipment Recovery sites
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: EX0-112
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (Business Information Management Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 79 Q&As

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NO.1 Which activities are not in a transition plan?
A. the activities that are required for a successful preparation of the implementation
B. the generic activities that have to be performed at all locations where the system is
implemented
C. the specific activities that have to be performed at a specific location during transition
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is not an activity of Contract management.?
A. agreeing on how the information manager is to communicate with the IT director
B. changing the time of delivery of a change
C. monitoring whether the supplied IT-services correspond to the agreed services
Answer: B

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NO.3 Two reports that have been produced in the nightly batch processing have been damaged during
printing. This has been noticed by Operational supplier management. In which process will the end users
be informed that the reports have been damaged?
A. Business data management
B. End user support
C. Operational supplier management
Answer: B

EXIN examen   certification EX0-112   EX0-112   EX0-112

NO.4 Which monitoring activity belongs to Business data management?
A. monitoring of the integrity of customer data
B. monitoring whether the acceptance test data are correct
C. monitoring the accuracy of reports provided by the IT service provider
Answer: A

EXIN   certification EX0-112   EX0-112

NO.5 Which process produces an end user training for a new release of an application?
A. Transition
B. Prepare transition
C. Design non-automated information systems
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which process determines which information provisioning is required, including the
priorities?
A. Demand management
B. End user support
C. Information lifecycle management
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which responsibility belongs to the process Demand management?
A. determining the necessary capacity for change
B. periodic consultation of the end users
C. identification of information requirements within the business process
Answer: C

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NO.8 The process cluster Use management signals disruptions to the information provisioning, which are
experienced in the business process. Which process cluster will be the first to act on these signals?
A. Functionality management cluster
B. Information strategy cluster
C. Connecting processes (operational)
Answer: C

EXIN   EX0-112 examen   EX0-112 examen   EX0-112

NO.9 The cluster Use management provides information about the reliability of the business data. For which
process is this input?
A. Business data management
B. Demand management
C. Contract management
Answer: B

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NO.10 What do frameworks like BiSL contribute to the implementation of effective business
information management?
A. structured activities of business information management
B. much improved quality of the IT-services
C. a uniformly implemented business information management for each organization
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which process deals with defining interfaces in the area of information provisioning between various
organizations?
A. Information coordination
B. Information lifecycle management
C. Information portfolio management
D. Strategic information partner management
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which activity belongs to the process End user support?
A. dealing with calls about errors in the functionality
B. monitoring the usage of the information systems
C. adding new end users to a table
Answer: A

EXIN   certification EX0-112   EX0-112

NO.13 What is a key message of BiSL?
A. After outsourcing of IT-activities, professional business information management
becomes less important.
B. The importance of having good business information management increases in proportion to the
importance of the information provisioning for the organization.
C. Integration and alignment of the operational IT-management processes with the policy is a
consequence of an effective and efficient information provisioning.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is a result of the process Specify information requirement?
A. a functional design
B. a list of functional and non-functional demands
C. an approved test strategy
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which role does business information management play regarding the realization of the
information provisioning?
A. the role of vendor of IT-services
B. the role of purchaser of IT-services
C. the role of supplier of IT-services
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: MOFF-EN
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (Microsoft Operations Framework Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a process within the Service Monitoring and Control SMF?
A. Continuous monitoring
B. Purge event logs
C. Service monitoring requirements
D. Static monitoring definition
Answer: A

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NO.2 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

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NO.3 Does the Team SMF ensure that someone is ultimately accountable for the work required in
the Plan Phase?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.4 Does the concept ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its
constraints?Does the concept ?ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its
constraints?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which SMF has 'Filter the problem' as a process step?
A. Customer Service
B. Service Monitoring and Control
C. Operations
D. Problem Management
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: E20-361
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 319 Q&As

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NO.1 The storage administrator would like to know if more AV servers are necessary for optimal
performance and protection.
Which tool can the system administrator use to analyze current utilization of the antivirus environment?
A.CAVA Calculator
B.NAS Support Matrix
C.CAVA Sizing Tool
D.Celerra Monitor
Answer:C

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NO.2 You have moved a VDM from one Data Mover to another. Now the users cannot access the data. What
could cause this condition?
A.Interface names are different to the source VDM.
B.The IP address on the target Data Mover is set before the move.
C.Target Data Mover sees all file systems of the source VDM.
D.You keep the same IP addresses.
Answer:A

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NO.3 File systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
D.iSCSI LUNs
Answer:B

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NO.4 Which component of SnapSure identifies changed data blocks in the production file system?
A.Bitmap
B.Blockmap
C.Superblock
D.Inode
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which Celerra Data Mover file controls both the services used for name resolution and the order in
which they are used?
A.nsswitch.conf
B.nslookup.conf
C.hosts.conf
D.resolv.conf
Answer:A

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NO.6 How is Kerberos used within the Active Directory?
A.For user authentication
B.Provides encryption of stored user passwords
C.For time synchronization
D.Provides Dynamic DNS updates
Answer:A

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NO.7 A user needs to test new software with existing data stored on a Celerra file system that has
checkpoints. The Celerra administrator is asked to mount a SnapSure checkpoint from the file system to a
different Data Mover.
Can the administrator fulfill this request? Why or why not?
A.Yes, but only if the checkpoint is mounted read-only
B.Yes, but the checkpoint cannot be restored to the PFS
C.No, because the checkpoint relies on the PFS
D.No, because a writeable snap is required for testing
Answer:C

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NO.8 You are implementing a CIFS solution and will possibly be using Virtual Data Movers. Which CIFS
dynamic configuration information is contained within the Virtual Data Mover?
A.Virus checker configuration
B.CIFS startup configuration
C.DFS root ID information
D.Share information
Answer:D

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NO.9 What application provides integration between the Celerra and the iSCSI host for replicating an iSCSI
LUN?
A.Replication Manager
B.Unisphere Manager
C.Navisphere Manager
D.Celerra Manager
Answer:D

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NO.10 A Celerra file system has a SnapSure schedule enabled for daily checkpoints. By using the Microsoft
Shadow Copy Client, a user can see previous versions of a certain file up to a certain date in the past, but
nothing else after that.
What could be the cause of this issue?
A.Checkpoints are currently being used by an application.
B.All of the checkpoints have been refreshed.
C.There have been no changes to the file.
D.The SavVol has reached a full state.
Answer:D

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NO.11 Which Celerra feature stores Windows SIDs correlated to UIDs and GIDs?
A.ntxmap
B.NASDB
C.secmap
D.SavVol
Answer:C

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NO.12 You have decided to use the Automatic SavVol Extension. For a Celerra of 200 GB a SavVol with 20
GB is created.
What is the size of the next Automatic SavVol Extension when HWM is reached?
A.20 GB
B.20 MB
C.64 MB
D.64 GB
Answer:A

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NO.13 What is the default result of joining a CIFS server to a Windows Active Directory domain?
A.The CIFS server shares are dynamically updated in DNS.
B.The CIFS server interface is dynamically assigned from Active Directory.
C.The "EMC Celerra" container is created in Active Directory.
D.The CIFS server is added to the Active Directory Computers container.
Answer:C

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NO.14 ile systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs
D.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
Answer:B

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NO.15 Which describes how a Usermapper client resolves a Windows SID to UNIX UID/GID?
A.Uses the resolution order defined in the Data Mover nsswitch.conf file
B.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for secmap cache on server_2
C.Uses the ntxmap.conf file first, then the Data Mover secmap cache
D.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for a primary or secondary Usermapper service
Answer:D

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NO.16 An administrator wants to present several CIFS shares to users through one file server. The shares are
stored on many physical machines. What can be used with the Celerra to achieve this goal?
A.Celerra global CIFS server
B.Default CIFS server
C.Distributed File System
D.Virtual Data Mover
Answer:C

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NO.17 Which statement describes Celerra gateway Fibre Channel connectivity between the blades and the
back-end storage?
A.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct connection.
B.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct
C.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
D.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
Answer:C

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NO.18 You just created a new file system and exported it as an NFS export. You are informed that someone
deleted the .etc configuration directory.
What would be the best way to prevent this in the future?
A.Remove write permission on the .etc directory.
B.Export a subdirectory of the root file system.
C.Educate users about deleting system directories.
D.Set the hidden attribute on the root directory.
Answer:B

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NO.19 How does the Control Station access disk partitions on the back-end storage?
A.FC
B.NBS
C.iFCP
D.iSCSI
Answer:B

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NO.20 You are implementing a Celerra CIFS solution. When discussing the mapping method choices, the site
administrator asks you to explain the significance of the user mapping method for CIFS users.
How do you respond to the site administrator?
A.CIFS servers that join the Windows domain are assigned domain SIDs. The mapping method is used to
uniquely identify the CIFS servers in the Windows AD domain to UNIX NFS servicers in the NIS domain.
B.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that requires UNIX style UIDs and GIDs for file and directory
permissions. Windows users and groups are identified with SIDs. The mapping method correlates UNIX
UIDs and GIDs to Windows SIDs for uniquely identifying users.
C.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that stores UNIX style UIDs and GIDs and Windows SIDs for file
and directory permissions. The mapping method correlates the SIDs for local group permissions on the
CIFS server shares.
D.Stand-alone CIFS servers require a manual SID assignment when configured on a Celerra. When
users from the Windows domain access the Celerra the mapping method correlates the stand-alone CIFS
server SID with the Windows user SIDs.
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: E22-250
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Management - Smarts Administration)
Questions et réponses: 174 Q&As

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NO.1 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedVia/ConnectedTo
B.PackagedIn/Packages
C.Realizes/RealizedBy
D.Underlying/LayeredOver
Answer:C

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button. A router monitored by these polling settings has just been polled, and the
operational status of Interface A is DOWN. Ten seconds after the initial poll, the interface operational
status changes to UP. How long will it take from the last poll for the IP Domain Manager to set this
interface's status to UP?
A.15 minutes
B.700 milliseconds
C.9 seconds
D.900 minutes
Answer:A

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NO.3 The EMEA NOC, America NOC, and Asia NOC each has visibility to regional NOCs. Each regional
NOC implements one or more Smarts applications and uses its own Smarts Service Assurance Manager
to provide an end-to-end view of the region. What needs to be configured to architect EMC Smarts
solutions to view all regions?
A.Hierarchical SAM configuration
B.Smarts Aggregation Adapter
C.Smarts Topology Split Manager
D.Standard SAM configuration
Answer:A

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NO.4 A new Windows 2003 Enterprise Server from Vendor XYZ needs to be discovered. The Smarts admin
created an entry for this server in oid2type_Field.conf. .1.3.6.1.4.1.9999.1.12 { TYPE = Switch VENDOR
= XYZ MODEL = Widget5550 CERTIFICATION = TEMPLATE INSTRUMENTATION: Interface-Fault =
MIB2 Interface-Performance = MIB2 } After discovering this new server, which class will it be part of?
A.Host
B.It will not be added to the topology
C.Node
D.Switch
Answer:D

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NO.5 A root-cause problem is presented that states one of a router interfaces is down. What is the
underlying issue?
A.Router interface is administratively down and operationally down.
B.Router interface is administratively up and operationally down.
C.Router is completely down.
D.SNMP Agent on that router is not responding.
Answer:B

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NO.6 Which command can be used in a script that will stop the Service Assurance Manager SMARTS-SA?
A.dmquit -s SMARTS-SA --force
B.dmquit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
C.sm_quit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
D.sm_quit -s SMARTS-SA --ignore
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which Performance Monitor Setting will give early warning that an interface is too busy?
A.IPThreshold
B.Restart Trap Window
C.UnicastThreshold
D.UtilizationThreshold
Answer:D

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NO.8 Which sm_server parameters are required when starting a Service Assurance Manager?
A.--name and --config
B.--name and --port
C.--server and --config
D.--server and --port
Answer:A

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NO.9 An organization is looking for a way to effectively scale in an intricate heterogeneous IT environment.
Which part of the Smarts A3 architecture will minimize the manual effort to accomplish this goal?
A.Automation
B.Abstraction
C.Analytics
D.Analysis
Answer:B

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NO.10 A customer's environment has many different networks that are being managed by Smarts. As a result
of this there are many DuplicateIP notifications. What is an effect on Smarts of having DuplicateIP
notifications?
A.Each duplicated IP object is unmanaged.
B.IP Domain Manager polls twice as often.
C.Network connections will not be represented correctly.
D.Root-cause analysis of other events will be correlated to these Duplicate IPs.
Answer:A

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NO.11 A switch appears down in Service Assurance Manager. After trying to troubleshoot the problem, an
operator finds out that the switch has been removed from service. Why didn't this switch automatically
become Unmanaged in Smarts?
A.IP Availability Manager needs to be restarted to remove this switch.
B.Other devices that were connected to this switch are still reachable by Smarts.
C.This switch requires rediscovery.
D.Unmanaging devices is a manual process.
Answer:D

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NO.12 Oper1, a user, would like to share a saved map with other users. What does the admin need to do?
A.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\console folder on the Global Manager
B.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\consoles folder on the Global Manager
C.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\console folder on the Global Manager
D.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\consoles folder on the Global Manager
Answer:D

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NO.13 There is a firewall between the servers on which the Domain Managers are running. You are
troubleshooting a connectivity issue with the Smarts deployment. Which command is used to verify the
TCP ports on which the Domain Managers are listening?
A.brcontrol
B.sm_ping
C.sm_service show
D.sm_what
Answer:A

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NO.14 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedTo/ConnectedVia
B.HostsAccessPoints/HostedBy
C.MemberSystems/MemberOf
D.Realizes/RealizedBy
Answer:D

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button. The current weights.conf file contains: ClassWeight ICIM_ManagedElement 1
Which impact value would be calculated for this Router Down problem?
A.102
B.1000
C.1002
D.10002
Answer:C

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NO.16 To ensure that Discovery probes every IP address on a Class B IP network you set the Discovery filter
to 10.1.*.*. . However, you see that most devices in that range have not been discovered. Why?
A.MaximumHostBits parameter in discovery.conf is set to 8 by default.
B.Some of those IP addresses do not exist.
C.The systems have been throttled and placed on the Pending Device List.
D.You have run out of licenses.
Answer:A

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NO.17 At a customer site, many different networks are being managed by a single IP domain, which is
generating many DuplicateIP alerts in SAM. How can you avoid these DuplicateIP alerts?
A.Filter the Duplicate network
B.Use a different IP-AM for each network
C.Use a different SAM for each network
D.Use IP Tagging
Answer:D

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NO.18 What does the context filter determine when defining a tool?
A.If the tool is grayed out
B.If the tool is visible
C.The acceptable state for tool use
D.Which attributes are passed
Answer:B

EMC   E22-250   E22-250   E22-250

NO.19 Which information is needed by IP Availability Manager to communicate with an EMC Celerra NAS in
addition to its IP address?
A.Control Station port number
B.Data Mover port number
C.Port number
D.Username, password
Answer:D

EMC   E22-250   E22-250   E22-250

NO.20 Which relationship of a switch is expanded to view the instances of its ports, in the Topology Browser?
A.ComposedOf
B.HostConnectionPoints
C.Overlaying
D.PartOf
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: E22-315
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Disk Library and Backup to Disk Technologies)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.2 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Hardware compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.3 What does N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV) functionality provide to a DL4200?
A.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in a switched fabric environment
B.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
C.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in a switched fabric environment
D.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
Answer: C

EMC examen   E22-315 examen   E22-315   E22-315 examen

NO.4 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Auto Archive
B.Direct Access
C.Duplication
D.Remote copy
Answer: A

EMC   E22-315   E22-315   E22-315   E22-315

NO.5 A customer wants to implement a solution that would allow maximum availability for backups to
complete. Which EMC Disk Library feature will provide maximum availability for their backup solution?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Backup Engine Failover
C.CLARiiON Engine Failover
D.Passive Engine Failover
Answer: A

EMC examen   E22-315   E22-315   E22-315

NO.6 What are the major components of an EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC disk drives, EMC Disk Library solutions, and EMC Disk Library services
B.EMC Disk Library appliance, EMC Disk Library, CLARiiON, and EMC Disk Library server
C.EMC Disk Library, EMC Disk Library client, and EMC Disk Library Console
D.EMC Disk Library, EMC Tape Library, and EMC Disk Library server
Answer: C

EMC   E22-315 examen   E22-315 examen   E22-315 examen   certification E22-315

NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has a DL4200 connected to two switches in the same fabric, as shown in the exhibit.
Windows Backup Server X is zoned to port 1 on Engine A and Windows Backup Server Y is zoned to port
7 on Engine B. Active Engine Failover has been configured and is active.
Both backup servers are performing backups at the same time to their respective engines. Engine A has a
failure and all virtual services fail over to Engine B.
The backup administrator has verified that failover has occurred as expected but Backup X is unable to
see its virtual resources through the surviving engine even after rescanning the SCSI bus.
What is the problem?
A.Engine to switch cabling is incorrect
B.Engines are connected to different switches
C.Lack of PowerPath configuration on the backup servers
D.Missing EMC NetWorker DL-Failover license
Answer: A

EMC examen   certification E22-315   E22-315

NO.8 What is the recommended configuration for a Celerra ATA disk-array enclosure that will be used as a
backup-to-disk target?
A.RAID 3 4+1
B.RAID 3 7+1
C.RAID 5 4+1
D.RAID 5 7+1
Answer: C

EMC   E22-315   E22-315

NO.9 A customer with a Linux backup server plans to use a CLARiiON as the target for backups. What
should be recommended for adequate I/O performance?
A.Set the read cache to the maximum limit
B.Set the storage element to 256 KB
C.Use a cache page size of 64 KB
D.Use fdisk to correct disk misalignment
Answer: D

EMC examen   E22-315 examen   E22-315 examen

NO.10 Which EMC Disk Library models support ACSLS?
A.DL210, DL4100, DL4106
B.DL4100, DL4106, DL6100
C.DL4106, DL210, DL6100
D.DL6100, DL210, DL4100
Answer: B

EMC   certification E22-315   E22-315 examen   E22-315

NO.11 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Portability, investment protection, and TCO/ROI
C.Recovery speed, ease of use, and company reputation
D.Reliability, ease of use, and portability
Answer: A

EMC   E22-315   E22-315   certification E22-315

NO.12 In order to increase effective usable capacity on an EMC Disk Library, which feature is available?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Auto Archive
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Virtual Tape Library Compression
Answer: D

EMC examen   E22-315   E22-315   E22-315

NO.13 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Investment protection, space issues, and portability
C.Portability, recovery speed, and ease of use
D.TCO/ROI, company reputation, and investment protection
Answer: A

EMC examen   certification E22-315   E22-315   E22-315

NO.14 What should be used to configure and manage the EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC ControlCenter for EMC Disk Library
B.EMC Disk Library Console software
C.EMC Disk Library Navisphere software
D.Management is integrated with the backup application
Answer: B

EMC   E22-315   E22-315 examen

NO.15 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library at their disaster recovery site with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup application. A
small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it will eventually
expire without TSM involvement.
What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery
site?
A.Active Tape Migrator
B.Compression
C.Remote Copy
D.Tape Capacity-on-Demand
Answer: C

certification EMC   E22-315 examen   E22-315   E22-315

NO.16 Which type of connectivity is required from the backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.CIFS
B.Fibre Channel
C.Internet Protocol
D.NFS
Answer: B

EMC   E22-315   E22-315 examen   E22-315 examen

NO.17 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library in the primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library in the remote data center. What is the recommended feature to use to provide backup application
catalog consistency between two data centers?
A.ACSLS
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Remote copy
Answer: C

certification EMC   E22-315   E22-315

NO.18 An EMC NetWorker customer is using a file type device for backup-to-disk. What will happen if the file
type device fills up?
A.Save is suspended and expired save sets on the volume are deleted
B.The device expands automatically and the save operation continues
C.The save operation is aborted and a new volume is selected for writing
D.The volume is marked full and save continues on a new volume
Answer: D

certification EMC   E22-315   E22-315

NO.19 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Advanced Copy
B.Auto Archive
C.Remote copy
D.Tape Migration
Answer: B

EMC   E22-315   E22-315   E22-315   E22-315

NO.20 Which type of connectivity is required from a backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.Copper Network
B.Ethernet NAS
C.Fibre Channel
D.IP NAS
Answer: C

EMC   E22-315   E22-315 examen   E22-315

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