Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur Extreme Networks EW0-200

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Code d'Examen: EW0-200
Nom d'Examen: Extreme Networks (Extreme networks associate(ena))
Questions et réponses: 240 Q&As

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NO.1 Which CLI command will you use to change the CLI prompt from the default display to Switch02?
A. CONFIG SNMP SYSLOCATION Switch02
B. CONFIG SNMP SYSNAME Switch02
C. CONFIG CLI PROMPT Switch02
D. CONFIG CLI DISPLAY Switch02
Answer: B

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NO.2 Given the following information, select the option that would allow you to change the active
ExtremeWare version to 6.1.9b11 upon reboot.
A. use image primary
B. download config primary
C. use config primary
D. download image primary
Answer:A

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NO.3 The default administrator login name for a new Extreme switch was entered as ADMIN (all caps). This
will allow the administrator access to the CLI.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.4 An Extreme Switch is shipped with a pre-configured VLAN called DEFAULT that has all switch ports as
tagged members.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

certification Extreme Networks   EW0-200   EW0-200

NO.5 In ExtremeWare, active VLANs that are configured with ports and an IP address and configured to
forward IP and run a routing protocol will have their subnet advertised.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer:A

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NO.6 ExtremeWare, pre-installed on every Extreme Networks ?chipset switch, combines industry standard
protocols to ensure interoperability with legacy switches and routers, QoS for bandwidth management
and traffic prioritization in today networks.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer:A

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NO.7 The CLI console port utilizes a serial cable for physical switch to terminal connection.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer:A

Extreme Networks   EW0-200 examen   EW0-200 examen   EW0-200

NO.8 Which CLI command would you use to create a default route with a metric of 5 and a gateway of
10.0.0.1?
A. CONFIG IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 10.0.0.1 5
B. CONFIG IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 5 10.0.0.1
C. CREATE IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 10.0.0.1 5
D. CREATE IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 5 10.0.0.1
Answer:A

Extreme Networks   certification EW0-200   certification EW0-200   certification EW0-200

NO.9 Which of the following protocol filter/s is/are predefined in ExtremeWare?
A. OSPF
B. TCP
C. NETBIOS
D. All of these
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which step would you take to configure a VLAN to only allow IP-related traffic?
A. config <vlan> protocol ip
B. config protocol <vlan> ip
C. config ip protocol <vlan>
D. None of these.
Answer:A

Extreme Networks examen   EW0-200   EW0-200   EW0-200

NO.11 If you wish to silently drop all traffic destined for IP network 100.219.10.0/24 with a gateway of
10.219.10.1/24 and without receiving any ICMP messages that would otherwise be generated, which CLI
command would you execute?
A. configure iproute delete 100.219.10.0/24 gateway 10.219.10.1
B. configure iproute default 100.219.10.0/24
C. configure iproute add blackhole 100.219.10.0/24 gateway 10.219.10.1
D. configure iproute add blackhole 100.219.10.0/24
Answer: D

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NO.12 What CLI command is used to disable learning of incoming RIP routes on an interface?
A. disable rip learning <VLAN>
B. configure rip rxmode none <VLAN>
C. configure rip interface <VLAN> passive
D. None of these
Answer: B

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NO.13 In spanning tree, the designated bridge is the bridge with the:
A. least-cost path to the root bridge
B. highest bridge priority
C. lowest port cost on all ports
D. None of these
Answer:A

Extreme Networks examen   EW0-200   EW0-200   EW0-200 examen   EW0-200 examen   EW0-200

NO.14 Which statement is true? In a PC, the configured default gateway:
A. Is always within the PC IP (sub) network.
B. Is always outside the PC IP (sub) network.
C. Is always behind a router.
D. Can be anywhere.
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which of the following CLI commands would you use to enable ECMP for RIP?
A. enable rip route sharing
B. enable route sharing rip
C. enable iproute sharing
D. None of these, ecmp is not supported by RIP
Answer: D

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NO.16 This type of OSPF router has its router interfaces connected into multiple OSPF areas.
A. ASBR.
B. ABR.
C. DR.
D. BDR.
Answer: B

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NO.17 How would you stop a scheduled configuration download from happening? Use the CLI command:
A. cancel configuration download
B. download configuration cancel
C. configuration download cancel
D. delete configuration download
Answer: B

Extreme Networks   certification EW0-200   EW0-200 examen   EW0-200

NO.18 Which CLI command would you use to configure the switch to ignore STP for selected VLANs?
A. enable ignore-stp vlan <stpd>
B. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd> vlan <vlan>
C. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd>
D. enable ignore-stp vlan <vlan>
Answer: D

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NO.19 A 802.1Q tag is a marker inserted between the source and destination MAC addresses fields of the
Ethernet frame.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

certification Extreme Networks   EW0-200   EW0-200 examen   EW0-200

NO.20 Extreme Networks switches build their forwarding database from the incoming packet field information
containing the:
A. Source MAC address.
B. Destination MAC address.
C. Source IP address.
D. Destination IP address.
Answer:A

Extreme Networks   EW0-200   EW0-200   EW0-200

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Code d'Examen: EX0-104
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (TMap Next Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test
specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
Answer: C

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NO.4 See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional
and non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
Answer: C

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NO.5 Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: SCNS
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense)
Questions et réponses: 232 Q&As

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NO.1 The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that
establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500
series running IOS 11.2.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7
will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D's Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes
7 and Router D's Int E0.
Answer: D

EXIN   SCNS examen   SCNS

NO.2 Your network traffic has increased substantially over the last year, and you are looking into your
caching options for frequently visited websites. What are the two types of caching that ISA Server 2006
supports?
A. Reverse caching
B. Forward caching
C. Inverse caching
D. Recursive caching
E. Real-time caching
Answer: A,B

EXIN   SCNS examen   SCNS examen   SCNS examen   SCNS   SCNS

NO.3 At a policy meeting you have been given the task of creating the firewall policy. What are the two basic
positions you can take when creating the policy?
A. To deny all traffic and permit only that which is required.
B. To permit only IP traffic and filter TCP traffic
C. To permit only TCP traffic and filter IP traffic
D. To permit all traffic and deny that which is required.
E. To include your internal IP address as blocked from incoming to prevent spoofing.
Answer: A,D

EXIN examen   SCNS examen   SCNS   SCNS   SCNS

NO.4 If you wish to create a new rule in ISA Server 2006 so that all file attachments with an .exe extension
that come through the firewall are dropped, what would you select in the Toolbox to create this rule?
A. Content Type
B. User Group
C. Destination Set
D. Protocol Set
E. Extension Type
Answer: A

EXIN   certification SCNS   certification SCNS   SCNS

NO.5 You have configured Snort to run on your SuSe Linux machine, and you are currently making the
configuration changes to your MySQL database. What is the result of running the following command at
the mysql prompt?
source /usr/share/doc/packages/snort/schemas/create_mysql;
A. This command tells MySQL to connect to the /usr directory when source files are required for Snort
rules.
B. This command tells MySQL that the source files for Snort are located in the /usr directory.
C. This command tells MySQL where to place the Snort capture files in the database.
D. This command tells MySQL to populate the database using the fields provided by Snort.
E. This command tells MySQL where to find the source data for connecting to Snort.
Answer: D

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NO.6 As per the specifications of RFC 1191: Path MTU Discovery, MTUs have been defined so that
transmitted datagram will not unnecessarily become fragmented when traveling across different types of
physical media. You are going to run several packet captures to be sure there are no out of spec packets
on your network. According to these specifications what are the absolute minimum and maximum MTUs?
A. 1492 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
B. 68 Bytes and 65535 Bytes respectively
C. 512 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
D. 512 bits and 1500 bits respectively
E. 512 bits per second and 1500 bits per second respectively
Answer: B

EXIN   SCNS   SCNS   SCNS examen   SCNS examen

NO.7 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.8 When performing wireless network traffic analysis, what is the type and subtype for an 802.11
authentication packet?
A. Type AA Subtype AAAA
B. Type 00 Subtype 1011
C. Type 0A Subtype 0A0A
D. Type 11 Subtype 0000
E. Type A0 Subtype A1A0
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current
configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any
network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are configuring a new IDS, running Snort, in your network. To better configure Snort, you are
studying the configuration file. Which four of the following are the primary parts of the Snort configuration
file?
A. Postprocessors
B. Variables
C. Preprocessors
D. Output Plug-ins
E. Rulesets
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.11 You are configuring your new IDS machine, where you have recently installed Snort. While you are
working with this machine, you wish to create some basic rules to test the ability to log traffic as you desire.
Which of the following Snort rules will log any tcp traffic from any host other than 172.16.40.50 using any
port, to any host in the 10.0.10.0/24 network using any port? A. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any ->
10.0.10.0/24 any
B. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
C. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
D. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
E. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <- 10.0.10.0/24 any
Answer: B

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NO.12 In the image, there are two nodes communicating directly, without an access point. In the packet on
the right side of the image, the Address 1 field is blank. If this packet is going to the other computer, what
is the value that must be filled in this blank address field?
A. 2345
B. 1234
C. ABCD
D. <null>
E. ABCD-1234
Answer: B

EXIN   SCNS   SCNS examen   SCNS examen   SCNS   SCNS examen

NO.13 During a training presentation, that you are delivering, you are asked how wireless networks function,
compared to the OSI Model. What two layers of the OSI Model are addressed by the 802.11 standards? A.
Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Session
Answer: A,B

EXIN examen   certification SCNS   SCNS   SCNS examen   SCNS examen

NO.14 You are considering your options for a new firewall deployment. At which three layers of the OSI model
does a stateful packet filtering firewall operate?
A. Presentation
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Application
E. Transport
Answer: B,C,E

EXIN   SCNS   SCNS   SCNS examen

NO.15 You are monitoring the network traffic on your Frame-Relay Internet connection. You notice a large
amount of unauthorized traffic on port 21. You examine the packets, and notice there are no files being
transferred. Traffic on what other port must be examined to view any file contents?
A. 20
B. 119
C. 23
D. 80
E. 2021
Answer: A

EXIN   SCNS examen   SCNS examen   SCNS   SCNS   SCNS

NO.16 The CEO of your company has just issued a statement that the network must be more secure right
away. You have discussed several options with the Chief Security Officer and the Chief Technology
Officer. The results of your discussion are to implement IPSec. What are the two prime functions of IPSec
that you can let the CEO know will be addressed with the implementation?
A. Ensure data corruptibility
B. Ensure data integrity
C. Ensure data availability
D. Ensure data security
E. Ensure data deliverability
Answer: B,D

EXIN examen   SCNS examen   SCNS examen   SCNS   certification SCNS   SCNS

NO.17 For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of
the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside
the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B

EXIN examen   SCNS   SCNS examen

NO.18 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic.?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

EXIN   SCNS   SCNS   SCNS examen   SCNS

NO.19 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.20 You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there
are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware
failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E

certification EXIN   SCNS   SCNS   certification SCNS   SCNS examen

NO.21 During your review of the logs of your Cisco router, you see the following line. What is the meaning of
this line?
%SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty1 (172.16.10.1)
A. A normal, but noteworthy event
B. An informative message
C. A warning condition has occurred
D. A debugging message
E. An error condition has occurred
Answer: A

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NO.22 You have been given the task of building the new wireless networks for your office, and you need to
verify that your equipment will not interfere with other wireless equipment frequencies. What wireless
standard allows for up to 11 Mbps transmission rates and operates in the 2.4GHz range?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11e
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11i
E. 802.11g
Answer: A

certification EXIN   SCNS   certification SCNS   SCNS

NO.23 You are configuring a Cisco Router, and are creating Access Control Lists as part of the security of the
network. When creating Wildcard Masks, which of the following rules apply?
A. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
B. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
C. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
D. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
E. To create a Wildcard Mask, always take the inverse of the Subnet Mask.
Answer: A,D

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NO.24 As you increase the layers of security in your organization, you must watch the network
behaviorclosely.
How can a firewall have a negative impact on the performance of your network?
A. It can authorize sensitive information from the wrong host
B. It can block needed traffic
C. It can decrypt secure communications that were supposed to get past the firewall encrypted
D. It can restrict bandwidth based on QoS
E. It can filter packets that contain virus signatures
Answer: B

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NO.25 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server
2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

EXIN examen   SCNS   certification SCNS

NO.26 What step in the process of Intrusion Detection as shown in the exhibit would determine if given alerts
were part of a bigger intrusion, or would help discover infrequent attacks?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 10
E. 4
Answer: C

EXIN   SCNS   SCNS   SCNS

NO.27 You are working on your companys IPTables Firewall; you wish to create a rule to address traffic using
ports 1024 through 2048. Which of the following would you use during the creation of your rule?
A. p:1024 P:2048
B. P:1024 p2048
C. p=1024-2048
D. 1024-2048
E. 1024:2048
Answer: E

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NO.28 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are
examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined
together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

EXIN examen   certification SCNS   SCNS   SCNS examen   SCNS

NO.29 You are planning on implementing a token-based authentication system in your network. The network
currently is spread out over four floors of your building. There are plans to add three branch offices.
During your research you are analyzing the different types of systems. Which of the following are the two
common systems token-based authentication uses?
A. Challenge/Response
B. Random-code
C. Time-based
D. Challenge/Handshake
E. Password-Synch
Answer: A,C

EXIN   SCNS examen   certification SCNS   SCNS examen   certification SCNS   SCNS examen

NO.30 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

EXIN   SCNS   SCNS   SCNS examen

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Code d'Examen: EX0-114
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (IT Service Mgmt Foundation Bridge based on ISO/IEC 20000 )
Questions et réponses: 78 Q&As

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NO.1 What defines Service Quality?
A. A series of activities that can be assessed in advance by a provider and customer
B. Achieving a 99.999% continuous level of availability
C. Meeting stated customer requirements and expectations
D. Providing a cost-effective service
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is a best practice concerning information security risk assessment?
A. Information security risk assessments should be carried out by an external auditor to maintain
objectivity.
B. Information security risk assessments should be performed as a result of the review of every incident.
C. Information security risk assessments should be performed at agreed intervals and be maintained
duringchanges.
D. Information security risk assessments should be performed once a year.
Answer: C

EXIN   EX0-114   EX0-114   EX0-114

NO.3 Due to excessive workload, the Desktop Support group has been unable to meet their agreed service
levels. One of the major contributing factors is the time being spent in direct communication with users.
Which Process or Function can help to alleviate some of this workload?
A. Incident Management
B. Problem Management
C. Service Desk Service
D. Level Management
Answer: C

EXIN examen   EX0-114   EX0-114

NO.4 What is the difference between a process owner and a process manager?
A. a process owner is responsible for the effectiveness of the process and a process manager is
responsiblefor the realization of the process
B. a process owner is a director and a process manager is a manager
C. a process owner must have a Manager's Certificate and a process manager must have a
Practitioner'scertificate
D. a process owner will work directly with business leadership and the process manager only works within
IT
Answer: A

certification EXIN   EX0-114   EX0-114 examen

NO.5 Which process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT infrastructure?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Problem Management
Answer: B

EXIN   EX0-114 examen   EX0-114 examen

NO.6 What is required to be in place for emergency changes?
A. Capacity plans
B. Controlled Acceptance Test environment
C. policies and procedures
D. Service Continuity Plans
Answer: C

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NO.7 What data is recorded when an incident is reported to the Service Desk?
A. the name of the person reporting the Incident
B. the name of the person handling the Problem
C. the name of the person who approves the Request for Change (RFC)
D. the names of persons who are authorized to implement Changes in the Configuration
ManagementDatabase (CMDB)
Answer: A

EXIN examen   EX0-114   EX0-114   EX0-114   EX0-114

NO.8 Which aspect of the IT-Service Industry is considered to be one of the most important, but also one of
the most difficult?
A. constant quality
B. incorporating technological innovations
C. innovating the way services are provided
D. methodological order based on best practices
Answer: A

EXIN   EX0-114   EX0-114

NO.9 What is used for the assessment of maturity of organizations?
A. CMMI
B. CobITTM
C. ITIL
D. MOF
Answer: A

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NO.10 A company decides to apply the principle of continual improvement. Which action would result from this
decision.?
A. Analyze and evaluate the existing situation to identify areas for improvement
B. Analyze customer satisfaction and identify resulting actions
C. Review the Service Management System at least annual
D. Start an internal service organization evaluation
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: EX0-118
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (Green IT Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a stakeholder in a Green IT programme? a.Government organisations.
b.Suppliers. c.Company shareholders. d.Employees. e.Religious organisations.
A. a, c, and e
B. a, b and c.
C. a, b c, and e.
D. a, b, c and d.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How can IP Video Conferencing reduce your carbon footprint?
A. It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
B. It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
C. It reduces the number of rooms needed for meetings.
D. It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the best definition of a Carbon Footprint?
A. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted within a defined geographical area.
B. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by an organisation.
C. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by one person in one year.
D. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted minus the amount of carbon offsetting.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement best describes the purpose of a Green IT policy?
A. To ensure an organisation IT meets green legal requirements.To ensure an organisation? IT meets
green legal requirements.
B. To inform stakeholders of an organisation Green IT approach.To inform stakeholders of an
organisation? Green IT approach.
C. To allow an organisation to measure its Green IT performance.
D. To ensure Green IT is as important as other organisational initiatives.
Answer: B

EXIN examen   EX0-118   EX0-118 examen   EX0-118 examen

NO.5 Which of the following actions should an organisation take to help realise the marketing value
of green IT? a.Provide public disclosures of their environmental impact. b.Redefine their business
strategy to include green initiatives. c.Ensure all advertising focuses on its green message. d.Provide
a green discount across all of its product range.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. c and d.
D. a and b.
Answer: D

EXIN examen   EX0-118   certification EX0-118   EX0-118 examen   EX0-118 examen

NO.6 What type of person is likely to benefit most from being set measurable targets within a Green
IT programme?
A. Someone who constantly belittles the team and its achievements.
B. Someone who believes it is too late for the project to make a difference.
C. Someone who is committed but wants to do everything at once.
D. Someone who only participates if it helps their career opportunities.
Answer: C

EXIN   EX0-118 examen   EX0-118 examen

NO.7 You are monitoring energy usage in the Data Centre. What is the role of thermal profiling?
A. To identify hot spots and overcooling.
B. To identify which servers are performing efficiently.
C. To identify the timing of energy consumption peaks.
D. To identify which applications require the most energy.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is a benefit of adopting green IT within an organisation?
A. Creating a culture of team-based working.
B. Promoting a culture of maximum productivity.
C. Establishing a culture of total innovation.
D. Developing a culture of social responsibility.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following are risks to the success of a Green IT Programme? a.Alienation of key
staff. b.Additional unplanned costs. c.Perceived lack of benefits. d.Early delivery of benefits.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. b and d.
D. c and d.
Answer: B

EXIN   EX0-118 examen   EX0-118 examen   EX0-118

NO.10 Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
Answer: C

EXIN   EX0-118   certification EX0-118

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Code d'Examen: E20-455
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management Web Application Programming Exam)
Questions et réponses: 153 Q&As

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NO.1 If you want a new application layer in between the custom and webtop layers, then which file should
you extend?
A. \custom\app.xml
B. \webtop\app.xml
C. \WEB-INF\web.xml
D. \webtop\main_component.xml
Answer: B

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NO.2 How do you make only one theme available to users?
A. You include only one theme definition in the application configuration file in the custom layer.
B. You set the visible attribute of the dmf:datadropdownlist control for the theme to false.
C. You delete all the theme directories except the one you want from custom/themes.
D. You remove all but one theme definition from the application configuration file in the webcomponent
layer.
Answer: A

EMC examen   certification E20-455   E20-455

NO.3 Which type of container provides breadcrumb control functionality?
A. dialogcontainer
B. wizardcontainer
C. combocontainer
D. navigationcontainer
Answer: D

EMC examen   E20-455   E20-455

NO.4 How do you automatically include a custom JavaScript file to be in all of your JSPs?
A. by adding a reference to the component configuration file
B. by specifying it as an application parameter in the app.xml
C. by appending a reference to the Javascript file WebformScripts.properties
D. by using the <@ page import="custom/myUtils.js"> directive
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which directories are representative of application layers in a default Webtop installation?
A. WEB-INF and webtop
B. WEB-INF and wdk
C. custom and webtop
D. custom and help
Answer: C

EMC   certification E20-455   E20-455   E20-455

NO.6 Which authentication scheme enables safe automatic login by passing credentials in the URL?
A. Docbase Login Authentication Scheme
B. User Principal Authentication Scheme
C. Uniform Resource Locator Authentication Scheme
D. Ticketed Authentication Scheme
Answer: D

EMC examen   certification E20-455   E20-455

NO.7 Which code fragment lists the components for a container?
A. <contains>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</contains>
B. <pages>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</pages>
C. <include>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</include>
D. <params>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</params>
Answer: A

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NO.8 For what can a qualifier be used?
A. to filter valid data to be displayed
B. to check permissions during authentication
C. to scope and filter actions and components
D. to check data against the data dictionary
Answer: C

EMC   E20-455   certification E20-455   E20-455

NO.9 Where must component configuration files be located?
A. anywhere within application directories
B. in the config directory only
C. in the config directory and its subdirectories
D. anywhere, since the location is configurable
Answer: C

EMC   E20-455   E20-455 examen   E20-455

NO.10 According to the diagram, which component definition will be used for all instances of the type
sop_doc? Assume all four definitions exist in the application.
A. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="dm_sysobject">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
B. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="corporate_docs">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
C. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="procedure_doc">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
D. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="dm_folder">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-455   E20-455 examen   E20-455   E20-455 examen   E20-455

NO.11 Which diagram represents a typical Component Processing Sequence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-455   E20-455   certification E20-455

NO.12 You have implemented a custom authentication scheme, MyAuthenticationScheme.
To what must you add your scheme to ensure it is active?
A. in a properties file under the custom directory
B. in the app.xml under the custom directory
C. in a properties file under the WEB-INF/classes directory
D. in the web.xml under the WEB-INF directory
Answer: C

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NO.13 Where are the WDK servlets defined?
A. app.xml
B. wdk.xml
C. web.xml
D. server.xml
Answer: C

EMC examen   certification E20-455   E20-455 examen   E20-455

NO.14 Which statement is true about the inheritance of elements between application layers?
A. Elements are inherited from lower layers if they are not overridden in the higher layers.
B. Elements are inherited from lower layers only if they are overridden in the higher layers.
C. Elements are inherited from all application layers regardless of application layer hierarchy.
D. Elements are only inherited from application layers that are at the same level in the application layer
hierarchy.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You do not see the Presets option in Webtop. What could be a possible reason?
A. The Content Server does not have a license for Presets.
B. The BOF registry entry is incorrect in the dfc.properties file.
C. You are not a superuser.
D. You are not a system administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.16 You have a component that is contained within a dialogcontainer.
What are the correct criteria to display the Close button?
A. canCommitChanges() returns false and canCancelChanges() returns false
B. canCommitChanges() returns true and canCancelChanges() returns false
C. canCommitChanges() returns false and canCancelChanges() returns true
D. canCommitChanges() returns true and canCancelChanges() returns true
Answer: A

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NO.17 Given the following code: fragment:
<scope type="dm_folder">
<component id="delete" notdefined="true" />
</scope>
Which statement is true about the notdefined attribute?
A. The delete component is available for dm_folder types, but not for dm_cabinet types.
B. The delete component is available for dm_folder and dm_cabinet types, but not for dm_document
types.
C. The delete component is available for dm_document types, but not for dm_folder or dm_cabinet types.
D. The delete component is available for dm_document, dm_folder and dm_cabinet types.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Given the following onInit() methods for two components:
In component A:
public void onInit(ArgumentList args)
{
super.onInit(args);
ArgumentList args2= new ArgumentList();
args2.add("MyArg", "MyValue");
setComponentNested ("B", args2, getContext(), this);
}
In component B:
public void onInit(ArgumentList args)
{
super.onInit(args);
String myVal = args.get("MyArg");
System.out.println (myVal);
}
The println statement returns null for myVal.
What is the likely cause of this?
A. ArgumentLists can not be passed between components.
B. ArgumentLists always start out empty in onInit() methods.
C. MyArg is not defined in the <params> element of the component definition B.
D. The ArgumentList for component A is independent of the ArgumentList for component B.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which is true about Presets?
A. Presets are not used to provide security
B. Presets descend to subfolders
C. Presets applied to a folder do not apply to the files imported into the folder
D. Presets only comprise of a single rule each
Answer: A

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NO.20 You have written a custom authentication scheme and have correctly added the scheme to the system.
You discover a problem in the code, which causes the scheme to always return null.
How does the null return value affect authentication in Webtop?
A. Any remaining schemes are skipped, and the login dialog is presented immediately.
B. Any remaining schemes are attempted, where the login dialog is usually the final authentication
scheme.
C. The scheme throws a null pointer exception and prevents other schemes from authenticating.
D. The scheme automatically logs the user in as the repository administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Given the following fragment:
<filter role="contributor, not administrator">
...
</filter>
Which roles will be allowed to use the definition within this filter element?
A. contributors, coordinators, consumers and administrators
B. contributors, coordinators, and consumers, but not administrators
C. contributors, coordinators, but not administrators or consumers
D. contributors, but not administrators, coordinators or consumers
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which order represents the default Preset precedence?
A. location, user, role, object type
B. user, object type, role, location
C. user, role, object type, location
D. location, role, user, object type
Answer: A

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NO.23 The highest level application layer of a WDK application is defined in which file?
A. app.xml
B. conf.xml
C. wdk.xml
D. web.xml
Answer: D

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NO.24 Where do you register a custom theme?
A. app.xml
B. BrandingServiceProp.properties
C. webforms.css
D. web.xml
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which statement is true about Trusted Authentication Scheme (Principal Support)?
A. It disables authentication through the Content Server.
B. It allows a superuser account to impersonate any given user.
C. The application server user name must not match a repository superuser.
D. A non-superuser account may be used to obtain login tickets.
Answer: B

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NO.26 Your employer asks you to rename the custom folder for your WDK application to "datasink."
Which XML entry represents the correct means of changing the custom folder's name?
A. <custom>
<application>
<application-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<application-value>datasink</param-value>
</application>
...
B. <config>
<app-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value extends="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</app-param>
...
C. <web-inf>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value inherits="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
...
D. <web-app>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value>datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
...
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which statement is true about action and component XML definitions?
A. Actions and components always require parameters.
B. Actions and components have layouts/presentations.
C. Action and component dispatchers use the same qualifiers.
D. Action and component definitions may contain preconditions.
Answer: C

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NO.28 Given the following fragment:
<contains>
<component>newFolder</component>
<component>attributes</component>
<component requiresVisit='true'>permissions</component>
</contains>
Which statement is true?
A. The container will commit changes upon visit to each component.
B. The permissions component must be viewed before the container can commit changes.
C. The OK button will be enabled upon viewing the newFolder component.
D. The permissions component will be the default component within the container.
Answer: B

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NO.29 What makes up a component definition file?
A. pages, parameters, NLS, description
B. pages, behavior, NLS, controls
C. pages, behavior, parameters, events
D. behavior, scope, NLS, actions
Answer: A

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NO.30 You are creating a component that requires verification to determine if the OK button can be selected.
Which container method can be overridden to implement this functionality?
A. onOK()
B. onNextPage()
C. onCommitChanges()
D. canCommitChanges()
Answer: D

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NO.1 What makes sizing of the reserved LUN pool a non-trivial task?
A.Reserved LUNs are assigned to specific source LUNs when the CLARiiON is laid out.
B.Source LUNs can be different sizes and only write to LUNs of the same size.
C.Reserved LUN pools may be different sizes and allocation to source LUNs is based on the next
available reserved LUN.
D.There are 512 reserved LUNs in all CLARiiON models while there may be many more source LUNs.
Answer:C

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NO.2 A customer starts four SnapView sessions on a source LUN. The sessions are scheduled to start at
8:00 A.M., 12:00 P.M., 4:00 P.M., and 8:00 P.M. At 5:15 P.M. the reserved LUN pool runs out of
space.What will happen next?
A.Most recently allocated reserved LUN will be released.
B.Reserved LUN allocated first will be released.
C.Space used by all sessions on the source LUN will be released.
D.Space used by the session that performed the most recent write will be released.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which device is enabled by default when creating a mirror set in a MirrorView/S environment on a
CX4-120 with FLARE 28?
A.Write intent log
B.Reserved LUN pool
C.Secondary Image
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:B

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NO.4 A customer intends to use clones in their environment. They are concerned about the usability of clone
data.They ask about the result of removing a clone from a clone group.Which statement describes the
result of that operation?
A.Clone LUN may be used for reverse-synchronization operations.
B.Clone LUN may be used for synchronization operations.
C.Data on the clone LUN is flagged in the clone private LUN.
D.Data on the clone LUN is not affected and may be used by a host.
Answer:D

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NO.5 What does the fracture log allow?
A.Incremental resynchronization of data
B.Creation of markers for each modified track
C.Capture of persistency errors from the source to target
D.Connectivity failures from both directions
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which best describes the MirrorView/A replication process?
A.A write is received, tracked in the SAN Copy delta set mechanism, transmitted to the secondary array.
B.A write is received, tracked in the fracture log, transmitted to the secondary array.
C.A write is received, tracked in the SnapView private LUN, transmitted to the secondary array.
D.A write is received, tracked in the write intent log, transmitted to the secondary array.
Answer:A

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NO.7 A storage administrator wants to use a point-in-time copy of a production LUN for testing and possibly
keep any changed data from that copy. The administrator's goal is to minimize the performance impact on
the production LUN as well as use the point-in-time copy for restoring their data.What is the extent size for
this LUN?
A.Use a clone and promote it as needed
B.Use a clone and reverse-synchronize as needed
C.Use a snapshot of a clone and roll back as needed
D.Use a snapshot and deactivate command to make changes permanent on the production LUN
Answer:B

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NO.8 Should a SnapView session stop automatically, what will happen to the running sessions?
A.All sessions pointing to the clone will fail over to SP B and continue to write.
B.All sessions running on the source LUN will be terminated.
C.Host buffers will be flushed and sessions restarted.
D.All memory mapping entries will be saved to the COFW log.
Answer:A

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NO.9 If a customer wants to present a secondary image LUN of a MirrorView/S mirror set to a host, what
must they do first?
A.The primary image must be removed from the mirror set.
B.The secondary image must be placed in the host storage group.
C.The secondary image must be removed from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
D.The secondary image must be fractured from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which object would maintain the changes to a source LUN in the event a MirrorView/S configuration
suffered a link outage followed by an SP trespass?
A.Metavolume
B.Fracture log
C.Write intent log
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:C

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NO.11 What is the process for flagging source LUNs?
A.Snapshots are created, changing the LUN's state.
B.Via GUI interface or CLI the state change bit is switched.
C.The PSM LUN is set to "source."
D.Via Navisphere Analyzer the FLARE LUN is changed to a PSM LUN.
Answer:A

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NO.12 During normal MirrorView/S operations, Navisphere Manager permits host access to how many
secondary images?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.4
Answer:A

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NO.13 What happens when a snapshot is deactivated?
A.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the primary host.
B.The SnapView session ends.
C.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the secondary host.
D.All metadata is removed from the SP.
Answer:C

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NO.14 The number and size of SnapView pointers have reached memory allocation. What will take place to
adjust to this situation?
A.Pointers will be paged to the reserved LUN as required.
B.128 KB memory chunks will be added until the memory usage has been satisfied.
C.Pointers will be paged to and from the reserved LUN as required in 512 KB chunks.
D.An additional reserve LUN will be required.
Answer:C

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NO.15 A storage administrator tries to create a clone group on a CLARiiON CX4 and receives an error
message that stops the clone group from being created.What could be a possible cause?
A.MirrorView has not been configured.
B.Population latency has not been configured.
C.No CPLs have been allocated.
D.No reserved LUNs have been allocated.
Answer:C

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NO.16 In a MirrorView/S environment, a primary image is owned by SPA on the primary array. Which SP must
own the secondary image on the secondary array within the same mirror set?
A.Either SP on the secondary array
B.SPB on the secondary array
C.SPA on the secondary array
D.It is marked as a private LUN on the secondary array
Answer:C

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NO.17 The primary image of a MirrorView/S mirror set has trespassed from SPA to SPB on the primary
array.Which SP now owns the secondary image?
A.ALUA determines ownership
B.SPA on the secondary array
C.Neither SPA or SPB
D.SPB on the secondary array
Answer:D

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NO.18 Which statement applies when the Protected Restore option is enabled on a clone?
A.Once the reverse synchronization is complete, the clone is fractured.
B.All SnapView sessions on the source LUN must be stopped.
C.A clone cannot be marked "dirty" before starting a reverse synchronization.
D.When reverse synchronization is in process, no writes are allowed to the source LUN or clone.
Answer:A

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NO.19 What CLARiiON is needed to meet a customer's requirement for their MirrorView/S environment that
will have 50 consistency groups?
A.CX4, FLARE 22
B.CX4, FLARE 28
C.CX3, FLARE 26
D.CX3, FLARE 28
Answer:B

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NO.20 Which statement describes the operation of the reserved LUN pool?
A.LUN IDs of reserved LUNs in the reserved LUN pool can only be between 2048 and 4096.
B.All reserved LUNs must be the same size, on FC disks, and have the same RAID type.
C.Separate reserved LUN pools are required for SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
D.Reserved LUN pool is shared between SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
Answer:D

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