2014年1月30日星期四

Dernières HP HP2-E33 de la pratique de l'examen questions et réponses téléchargement gratuit

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Code d'Examen: HP2-E33
Nom d'Examen: HP (Selling HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 According to IDC estimates, discrete purchasing activities in the area of networking, storage andservers
will start combining into a new Converged Infrastructure category. What is the estimatedvalue that this
new category will reach by 2012?
A. $20 billion USD
B. $25 billion USD
C. $30 billion USD
D. $35 billion USD
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which problem do companies experience most often as a result of having virtualized systems?
A. workload distribution control
B. decreased hardware performance
C. bottlenecks on virtual machines
D. virtual sprawl
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 How does the focus of sales discussions changes as you become a consultative salesperson?
A. The price of products and services becomes more important.
B. Product features become more important.
C. You sell fewer products and more services.
D. You focus on delivering quantifiable business value.
Answer: D

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NO.4 By up to which percentage can HP BladeSystem Matrix reduce the total cost of ownership?
A. 26%
B. 36%
C. 56%
D. 76%
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the best way to establish yourself as a trusted advisor to your customers.?
A. Deliver products and services that meet customer expectations.
B. Demonstrate working proofs of concepts for each solution.
C. Help the customer devise metrics to measure their performance.
D. Speak strategically to their business challenges.
Answer: D

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2014年1月29日星期三

EW0-100 dernières questions d'examen certification Extreme Networks et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: EW0-100
Nom d'Examen: Extreme Networks (Extreme Networks Associate (ENA) )
Questions et réponses: 241 Q&As

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NO.1 STPDs s0, s1, and s2 have been created. How would you activate only s1 while
leaving the other STPDs inactive?
A. enable stpd s1
B. enable s1 stpd
C. enable stp ¨¤ enable s1 stpd
D. None of these
Answer: A

Extreme Networks   EW0-100 examen   EW0-100

NO.2 Given router interfaces 10.0.0.1/24, 10.10.10.10/24, 192.168.0.1/24, and
192.168.255.254/24 on a Summit7i switch what will be the OSPF router ID given the
following command: config ospf routerid automatic?
A. 10.0.0.1/24
B. 10.10.10.10/24
C. 192.168.0.1/24
D. 192.168.255.254/24
Answer: D

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NO.3 Unlike VRRP, the Extreme Standby Router Protocol provides redundancy at both
the data link and network layers.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 SNMP access to ExtremeWare can be limited by the following methods:
A. Use an access list
B. Use an access profile
C. Use the disable snmp access command
D. None of these
Answer: ABC

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NO.5 What is the default value for the RIP garbagetime setting?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 180 seconds
Answer: C

Extreme Networks   EW0-100   EW0-100   EW0-100   EW0-100

NO.6 Extreme Networks "I" series switches have this many queues per port. __________.
Answer: 8

NO.7 If a packet to be forwarded does not match existing flow information in the ASIC
route cache, the packet is queued to the __________ for route processing.
Answer: cpu

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NO.8 Without QoS, all packets are allowed equal access to an egress port.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 Name a relative route priority that cannot be altered? __________.
Answer: direct

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NO.10 What is the minimum ExtremeWare software version that supports the Summit48i?
A. ExtremeWare 4.x
B. ExtremeWare 5.x
C. ExtremeWare 6.x
D. None of the above
Answer: C

certification Extreme Networks   EW0-100   certification EW0-100

NO.11 Which command would you use to configure VLAN corporate with IP address
192.168.0.1/16?
A. config vlan corporate ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16
B. config ipaddress corporate vlan 192.168.0.1/16
C. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 vlan corporate
D. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 corporate vlan
Answer: A

Extreme Networks   certification EW0-100   certification EW0-100   EW0-100

NO.12 Exhibit:
Given this display, how would you find information similar to the SHOW SWITCH
command?
A. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW, then SWITCH.
B. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH, then SHOW.
C. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW.
D. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH.
Answer: D

Extreme Networks   EW0-100   EW0-100   EW0-100

NO.13 What type of area is used to limit external routes?
A. Stub area
B. Normal area
C. Backbone area
D. None of these
Answer: A

Extreme Networks   EW0-100   EW0-100   EW0-100

NO.14 VLAN aggregation allows multiple sub-VLANs to share a single IP subnet.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.15 In RIP, poison reverse means that:
A. A route is not advertised to the interface from which it was learned.
B. A route is advertised as unreachable to the interface from which it was learned.
C. Traffic whose source interface does not match the routing table is blackholed.
D. None of these.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Internal routers within an OSPF area are either DRs, BDRs, or __________.
Answer: ODR

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NO.17 What is the default STP forward delay value?
A. 2 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds
Answer: C

Extreme Networks   certification EW0-100   EW0-100

NO.18 QoS policy is applied _____ in an Extreme switch.
A. per port
B. per queue, per port
C. per queue
D. None of these.
Answer: B

Extreme Networks   EW0-100 examen   EW0-100

NO.19 Which of the following is not advertised in an OSPF Link State Advertisement?
A. Costs
B. Link utilization
C. Router interfaces
D. Neighbor information
Answer: B

Extreme Networks   EW0-100   EW0-100

NO.20 Which of the following routes will be used to forward a frame to 192.168.1.174?
A. 192.168.1.0/29
B. 192.168.1.128/30
C. 192.168.1.128/25
D. None of these.
Answer: C

Extreme Networks   EW0-100   EW0-100 examen   EW0-100   EW0-100

NO.21 All OSPF routers in the same area must have the same LSDB.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which command would you use to configure VLAN CORPORATE (tag 100) with
ports 1:1 through 4:8 tagged and ports 5:1 through 8:8 as untagged?
A. config vlan corporate ports add 1:1-4:8 tagged ¨¤ config vlan corporate ports add
5:1-8:8 untagged
B. config vlan corporate add ports1:1-4:8 tagged ¨¤ config vlan corporate add ports
5:1-8:8 untagged
C. config corporate vlan add ports 1:1-4-8 tagged ¨¤ config corporate vlan add ports
5:1-8:8 untagged
D. config corporate vlan ports add 1:1-4:8 tagged ¨¤ config corporate vlan ports add
5:1:8:8 untagged
Answer: B

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NO.23 How would you change the password for John Doe's management account?
A. Enter config jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
B. Enter config jdoe user account and then enter the new password twice.
C. Enter config user account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
D. Enter config account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
Answer: D

Extreme Networks   EW0-100 examen   EW0-100 examen   EW0-100 examen

NO.24 Which ExtremeWare feature permits ESRP to increase the number of protected
VLANs by placing them under the control of a master VLAN?
A. ESRP groups
B. ESRP domains
C. ESRP host attach
D. None of these.
Answer: B

Extreme Networks examen   EW0-100   EW0-100

NO.25 A VLAN can be a member of up to 64 STPDs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.26 How do you disable Split Horizon?
A. disable rip splithorizon noadvertise
B. unconfig rip splithorizon
C. disable rip splithorizon
D. unconfig rip splithorizon noadvertise
Answer: C

Extreme Networks examen   EW0-100   EW0-100   EW0-100   EW0-100

NO.27 Which RIP settings are enabled by default?
A. Triggered updates
B. Poison Reverse
C. Split Horizon
D. Route redistribution
Answer: ABC

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NO.28 When using Spanning Tree Protocol, ExtremeWare permits VLANs in different
STPDs to share the same port when tagged.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.29 RIP version 2 uses a composite metric that includes link speed and delay.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.30 __________ allow(s) multiple VLANs to be controlled by a single ESRP instance.
A. ESRP domains
B. ESRP groups
C. ESRP host-attach
D. None of these.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: EX0-107
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (SCNP Strategic Infrastructure Security)
Questions et réponses: 233 Q&As

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NO.1 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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NO.2 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the
information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is
the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of
information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: ABCD

EXIN examen   EX0-107   EX0-107

NO.3 What is the name of the informational page that is relevant to a particular command in Linux?
A. Readme Page
B. Lnx_nfo Page
C. Man Page
D. X_Win Page
E. Cmd_Doc Page
Answer: C

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NO.4 Often times attackers will run scans against the network to identify different network and operating
systems, and resources that are available. If an attacker runs scans on the network, and you are logging
the connections, which of the following represent the legitimate combination of packets that will be sent
between the attacker and target?
A. Attacker PSH-FIN Scan, Target RST-FIN Response
B. Attacker ACK Scan, Target NULL Response
C. Attacker NULL Scan, Target RST Response
D. Attacker SYN Scan, Target NULL Response
E. Attacker FIN Scan, Target RST Response
Answer: CE

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NO.5 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the
site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting
ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
Answer: A

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NO.6 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Business Continuity Planning?
A. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
B. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
C. The objectives of this section are to counteract interruptions to business activities and to critical
business processes from the effects of major failures or disasters.
D. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

EXIN   EX0-107   certification EX0-107   certification EX0-107

NO.8 What is a problem with symmetric key cryptography?
A. It is slower than asymmetric key cryptography
B. Secure distribution of the public key
C. There is a lack of encryption protocols that can use symmetric key cryptography
D. Secure distribution of a secret key
E. Symmetric key cryptography is reserved for the NSA
Answer: D

EXIN   EX0-107   EX0-107

NO.9 During the configuration of your Linux system, you are working with the available drives in the
computer. What syntax defines the First (Primary) IDE hard disk drive?
A. /dev/sda
B. /dev/fda
C. /dev/hd1
D. /dev/hda
E. /dev/fd1
Answer: D

EXIN   EX0-107 examen   EX0-107   EX0-107 examen

NO.10 In order for your newly written security policy to have any weight, it must be implemented. Which of
the following are the three components of a successful Security Policy Implementation in an organization?
A. Policy Monitoring
B. Policy Design
C. Policy Committee
D. Policy Enforcement
E. Policy Documentation
Answer: ABD

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NO.11 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. NetBus Scan
B. Trojan Scan
C. Ping Sweep
D. Port Scan
E. Ping Sweep
Answer: D

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NO.12 You have become the lead security professional for a mid-sized organization. You are currently
studying DNS issues, and configuration options. You come across the concepts of DNS Spoofing, and
investigate more. What is DNS Spoofing?
A. DNS Spoofing is when the DNS client submits a false DNS request to the DNS server, and the DNS
server responds with correct data.
B. DNS Spoofing is the DNS client submits a DNS request to the DNS server using a bogus IP address,
and the DNS server responds to the incorrect host.
C. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS Server responds to an unauthorized DNS client, providing that client with
name resolution.
D. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS client is forced to make a DNS query to an imposter DNS server, which
send the client to an imposter resource.
E. DNS spoofing is when a DNS server provides name resolution to clients that are located in a different
IP subnet than the server itself.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following are symmetric encryption algorithms?
A. MD5
B. RSA
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. 3DES
E. AES
Answer: DE

EXIN   EX0-107   certification EX0-107   EX0-107

NO.14 You are configuring the lines that control access to exported objects on your server running NFS. If
you have a directory called /Tech and you wish to export this directory to network 192.168.20.0/24,
allowing root access, and the permissions of read and write, which of the following lines will accomplish
this?
A. (RW) no_root_squash /Tech 192.168.20.0/24
B. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24 (rw) no_root_squash
C. (RW) no_root_squash 192.168.20.0/24 /Tech
D. (RW)no_root_squash:/Tech 192.168.20.0/24
E. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24(rw) no_root_squash
Answer: E

EXIN   EX0-107   certification EX0-107

NO.15 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to
business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information
security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: B

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NO.16 To increase the security of your network and systems, it has been decided that EFS will be
implemented in the appropriate situations. Two users are working on a common file, and often email this
file back and forth between each other. Is this a situation where the use of EFS will create effective
security, and why (or why not)?
A. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for encryption.
B. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for encryption the security will increase.
C. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for decryption.
D. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for decryption the security will increase.
E. No, EFS cannot be used for files that are shared between users.
Answer: E

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NO.17 Attackers have the ability to use programs that are able to reveal local passwords by placing some
kind of a pointer/cursor over the asterisks in a program's password field. The reason that such tools can
uncover passwords in some Operating Systems is because:
A. the passwords are simply masked with asterisks
B. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT32 partition
C. the passwords are decrypted on screen
D. the password text is stored in ASCII format
E. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT16 partition
Answer: A

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NO.18 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

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NO.19 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are configuring the permissions to a file, called file1, on your Linux file server. You wish to change
the permissions to remove the execute permission from the others and group. Which of the following
commands will complete this task?
A. umask x-og file1
B. umask og-x file1
C. chmod xog- file1
D. chmod x-og file1
E. chmod og-x file1
Answer: E

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NO.21 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = EK1[DK2[EK1[P]]] ) , what is the function of C?
A. C is the text before encryption
B. C is the first encryption key
C. C is the second encryption key
D. C is the decryption key
E. C is the text after encryption
Answer: E

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NO.22 In the past it was, at times, difficult to locate current information on security vulnerabilities. What is the
name of the security communitys effort to create a comprehensive database of multiple vulnerabilities and
security tools?
A. Common Vulnerabilities and Exploits
B. Cataloged Venerations and Exposures
C. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exposures
E. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exploits
Answer: C

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NO.23 You have just downloaded a new file, called scnpfile.tar.gz. You are going to verify the file prior to
un-archiving the file. Which command do you need to type to un-compress the file, prior to un-archiving?
A. tar xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
B. tar -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
C. gunzip scnpfile.tar.gz
D. gunzip -xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
E. gunzip -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
Answer: C

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NO.24 To maintain the security of your network you routinely run several checks of the network and
computers. Often you use the built-in tools, such as netstat. If you run the following command: netstat -e
which of the following will be the result?
A. Displays all connections and listening ports
B. Displays Ethernet statistics
C. Displays addresses and port numbers in numerical form
D. Shows connections for the protocol specified
E. Displays per-protocol statistics
Answer: B

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NO.25 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your company. Of
the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous Social
Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the
writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to
speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the
receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and software. On the
call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in evaluating. The caller
asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to
reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP
to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's configuration data and the
emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: DE

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NO.26 If you encrypt or decrypt files and folders located on a remote computer that has been enabled for
remote encryption; the data that is transmitted over the network by this process is not encrypted. In order
to keep data encrypted as it is transmitted over the network, which of the following must you do?
A. You must implement EFS.
B. You must implement B2 security for Windows.
C. You must use IPSec.
D. You must use a recovery agent.
E. You must transmit the entire folder, not individual files.
Answer: C

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NO.27 You have just become the senior security professional in your office. After you have taken a complete
inventory of the network and resources, you begin to work on planning for a successful security
implementation in the network. You are aware of the many tools provided for securing Windows 2003
machines in your network. What is the function of Secedit.exe?
A. This tool is used to set the NTFS security permissions on objects in the domain.
B. This tool is used to create an initial security database for the domain.
C. This tool is used to analyze a large number of computers in a domain-based infrastructure.
D. This tool provides an analysis of the local system NTFS security.
E. This tool provides a single point of management where security options can be applied to a local
computer or can be imported to a GPO.
Answer: C

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NO.28 You are discussing the design and infrastructure of the Internet with several colleagues when a
disagreement begins over the actual function of the NAP in the Internets design. What is the function of a
NAP in the physical structure of the Internet?
A. The NAP provides for a layered connection system of ISPs connecting to the backbone.
B. The NAP provides the actual connection point between a local user and the Internet.
C. The NAP provides the physical network with communication channels for the Internet and voice/data
applications.
D. The NAP provides a national interconnection of systems, called peering centers, to the NSPs.
E. The NAP provides for a connection point between an ISP and the backbone of the Internet.
Answer: E

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NO.29 On Monday, during a routine check of a users Windows workstation, you find the following program,
called regedit.bat on the users local hard drive:
Net localgroup administrators local /all
Start regedit.exe
Exit
What is this program capable of doing on this computer?
A. Nothing, the first line is coded wrong.
B. It will add the administrators to the local group
C. It will add the local user to all local groups
D. It will add the administrators to all local groups
E. It will add the local user to the administrators group
Answer: E

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NO.30 You are working on the authentication systems in your network, and are concerned with your legacy
systems. In Windows NT 4.0, before Service Pack 4 (SP4), there were only two supported methods of
authentication. What were those two methods?
A. NetBIOS
B. LM
C. NTLM
D. NTLMv2
E. Kerberos
Answer: BC

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Code d'Examen: MOFF
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (MOFF Microsoft Operations Framework 4.0 Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 Does the Team SMF ensure that someone is ultimately accountable for the work required in the Plan
Phase?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.2 Does the concept ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its constraints Does the
concept ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its constraints.?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a process within the Service Monitoring and Control SMF?
A. Continuous monitoring
B. Purge event logs
C. Service monitoring requirements
D. Static monitoring definition
Answer: A

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NO.4 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which SMF has 'Filter the problem' as a process step?
A. Customer Service
B. Service Monitoring and Control
C. Operations
D. Problem Management
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is compliance?
A. An application of risk management that ensures IT's conformance with company-specific policies,
governmental regulations and laws
B. A design that involves understanding the business requirements and defining the features that users
need to do their job
C. A plan that aligns an organization objectives into a cohesive approach to deliverservices that support
business strategyA plan that aligns an organization? objectives into a cohesive approach to deliver
services that support business strategy
D. A state that occurs when the technical and business goals of the IT organization match the goals of the
overall business
Answer: A

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NO.7 The Change and Configuration Management SMF has a set of processes assigned to it. Which process
is the first in order?
A. Approve the change
B. Baseline the configuration
C. Classify the Change
D. Initiate the Change
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Management Review evaluates IT staff performance and operational efficiency?
A. Operational Health review
B. Policy & Control review
C. Release Readiness review
D. Service Alignment review
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which role type investigates and resolves an underlying problem?
A. Customer Service Representative
B. Incident Resolver
C. Problem Analyst
D. Problem Manager
Answer: C

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NO.10 Performing IT accounting is part of which SMF?
A. Business/IT Alignment SMF
B. Financial Management SMF
C. Policy Management SMF
D. Reliability Management SMF
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: EX0-117
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011))
Questions et réponses: 238 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that
involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure.?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Answer: D

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NO.4 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.5 The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are these four
Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Answer: C

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NO.6 Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is oftenundocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ECP-102
Nom d'Examen: Ericsson (Ericsson Certified Technology – IP)
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 An edge router forwards a mixture of VoIP and IPTV traffic over the same port.
Which two QoS scheduling algorithms would you use to assure good VoIP call quality when the port
is congested? (Choose two.)
A. PQ
B. WFQ
C. PWFQ
D. WRED
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 IPv6 addresses can be classified into which three categories? (Choose three.)
A. anycast
B. broadcast
C. multicast
D. hexcast
E. unicast
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 Which three techniques allow for the co-existence of IPv4 and IPv6 networks? (Choose three.)
A. tunneling
B. anycasting
C. translation
D. encoding
E. dual-stacking
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two statements are correct regarding QoS in an IP network using DiffServ? (Choose
two.)
A. High priority traffic can be dropped by any router in the network.
B. Packets belonging to the same QoS class always traverse the same path regardless of IGP
topology change.
C. Routers reserve required bandwidth before they start forwarding packets for a given class.
D. QoS procedures applied to a given traffic class are the same for all routers within the DiffServ
domain.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 What does TCP use to set up a connection?
A. Two-way handshake
B. Sliding window
C. Three-way handshake
D. Four-way handshake
Answer: C

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NO.6 Why must the distance between two IP networks be less than 16 routers when using RIP as a
routing protocol?
A. RIP is a classful routing protocol.
B. RIP converges too slowly.
C. RIP uses a metric of 16 as infinite.
D. RIP uses 16 seconds as a hold timer.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about MPLS encapsulation in relation to other protocols?
(Choose two.)
A. MPLS encapsulates IP packets.
B. UDP encapsulates MPLS packets.
C. TCP encapsulates MPLS packets.
D. Ethernet encapsulates MPLS packets.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 What are two advantages of using NAT in a network? (Choose two.)
A. to provide encryption for all IP traffic
B. to efficiently compress the IP packet
C. to hide private IP addresses from the Internet
D. to reduce the use of public IP addresses in a network
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Which two statements are correct about link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Packets are routed based upon the shortest path to the destination.
B. Paths are chosen based upon the number of hops to the destination.
C. The exchange of advertisement is triggered by a change in the network.
D. In a multipoint network, all routers exchange routing tables directly with all the routers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Computer A with IP address 192.168.1.1 / 24 wants to send a packet to computer B with IP
address 192.168.2.1 / 24. Which statement is correct?
A. Computer A will send an ARP request to computer B.
B. Computer A will encode the destination MAC address of computer B.
C. Computer A will use its default gateway.
D. Computer A will send a network discovery request to computer B.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-616
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 241 Q&As

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NO.1 Which type of Symmetrix volume contains information on the dynamic mirror policy decisions, error
logging, event traces, code image storage, and a dedicated lost write area?
A. BCV
B. Data
C. DRV
D. SFS
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which component of a DMX-2 performs Front End, director-to-director communications?
A. CCM
B. ECM
C. LCC
D. PBC
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a difference between a Symmetrix 8830 and a DMX-2?
A. An 8830 24-slot card cage is scalable
B. Disks on a DMX-2 are FC-AL
C. DMX-2 uses a cache interconnect multi-drop bus
D. Maximum system bandwidth on an 8830 is 16Gb/s
Answer: B

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NO.4 What does the Interleave Service Policy manage during a read operation?
A. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 randomly
B. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 alternatively
C. Reads the tracks only from M1
D. Tracks measurements of I/O on logical volumes and chooses the appropriate mirror
Answer: B

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NO.5 A service processor fails to communicate with directors 1 through 8 in the DMX-2 series. Which
component can cause this failure?
A. CCM0
B. ECM0
C. ECM1
D. XCM
Answer: A

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NO.6 When looking at the DMX FA Back Adapter, you notice that one of the SFPs is blue. What does this
mean?
A. Long wave, multi mode port
B. Long wave, single mode port
C. Short wave, multi mode port
D. Short wave, single mode port
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is a major difference in director data flow between the Symmetrix 8000 series and a DMX-2?
A. An 8430 uses loop redundancy
B. An 8530's directors are connected to two data busses
C. Directors in a DMX-2 are connected to top high and bottom low
D. DMX-2 port bypass cards are connected directly to cache
Answer: B

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NO.8 A DMX-2 memory configuration containing four (4) memory boards is to be upgraded to larger size
cache boards. The upgrade results in a two (2) memory board configuration. How will the bandwidth of
the DMX-2 be affected by the upgrade?
A. Decreased by the smaller cache card count
B. Increased by the larger memory size
C. Unchanged, only memory size is affected
D. Will remain at the theoretical maximum
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer's AC power fails to a Symmetrix 8430/8530. In this case, which components will the
battery subsystem sustain?
A. Card cage and disks
B. Communication cards and service processors
C. Disk drives and memory
D. Memory cards and service processor
Answer: A

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NO.10 All the memory slots in a DMX-1000 are occupied. In this case, what is run from the procedure Wizard
to perform Memory Replacement?
A. Add Memory Board script to the Universal slot script, run Replace Memory Board Script, and replace
that board
B. Remove Memory Board script first and then Add Memory Board Script
C. Replace Memory Board script
D. Upgrade Memory Board script
Answer: B

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NO.11 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of a Symmetrix DMX22000/3000 Card Cage. Where will you find ECM1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.12 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is CCM0?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D

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NO.13 When is the relationship between a data volume and a BCV created?
A. When the BCV is created in the bin file
B. When the BCV is established
C. When the BCV is split
D. When the BCV is varied on
Answer: B

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NO.14 How is DPR enabled?
A. By the EMC z/OS Storage Manager
B. In the bin file
C. Inlines Command
D. On the host by z/OS
Answer: B

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NO.15 A customer wants to change Host Directors to support SRDF. What distinguishes one director type
from another within a Symmetrix 8000 series?
A. Director model number
B. Director revision
C. Emulation code
D. Enginuity code level
Answer: C

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NO.16 On a DMX1000P, how many DAs are required?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.17 A customer wants to set up an FA port for a 10km distance connection. Which optic mode will meet the
customer's need?
A. Long wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
B. Long wave, Fibre Single Mode port
C. Short wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
D. Short wave, Fibre Single Mode port
Answer: B

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NO.18 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is ECM1?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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NO.19 Click the exhibit button.
The customer has handed you this service alert error message. What is the error?
A. Alarm signal set
B. PC failed to call home due to communication problems
C. Temperature problems
D. Mirror device is not ready at time of periodic test
Answer: D

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NO.20 When will a customer's host be able to access the data on a BCV?
A. After the BCV is established
B. After the BCV is split
C. When the BCV is created in the Bin
D. While the BCV is syncing with the data volume
Answer: B

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